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History Forum / General / British History / July 2008



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The Celts and Britain

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manxman - 22 Apr 2006 01:35 GMT
The Britsh people in my opinion achieved a huge amount in their rise to
dominance adding to many countries legal systems , cultures and more.
Granted many mistakes were made but on the whole it was a civilising
factor.

I often wonder though with the lastest research into DNA showing that
the British people are still very much the same whether Scottish, or
Welsh or any of the other Celtic peoples showing that the Norman, and
Germanic invasions only supplanted the language and not so much the
poeple.

Would the Britain of today and the Britain of the 18th and 19th century
exist today if the Celtic People didn't hold on dispite the odds
agianst them??

More on the celts I found here

http://home.exetel.com.au/manxman/History%20of%20the%20Celts

I vibrant people no doubt.
Vaughan Sanders - 22 Apr 2006 10:46 GMT
> The Britsh people in my opinion achieved a huge amount in their rise to
> dominance adding to many countries legal systems , cultures and more.
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
> Germanic invasions only supplanted the language and not so much the
> poeple.

How do you account for the DNA of at least 80% being Germanic?
http://www.ucl.ac.uk/tcga/presentations/ASdemo/AS-26-11-03b.html

> Would the Britain of today and the Britain of the 18th and 19th century
> exist today if the Celtic People didn't hold on dispite the odds
[quoted text clipped - 5 lines]
>
> I vibrant people no doubt.

I would think the DNA of the Isle of Man would show heavy Norse influence,
the Tynwald is a Norse institution.

http://www.tynwald.org.im/
TYNWALD the 1000 Year Parliament
"Our little nation is the only Norse nation now on earth that can shake
hands with the days of the Sagas, and the Sea-Kings. Then let him who will
laugh at our primitive ceremonial. It is the badge of our ancient liberty,
and we need not envy the man who can look on it unmoved".

"The observer at St. John's on 5th July, the Manx National Day, watches a
ceremony which has continued unchanged, except in detail, for more than
1,000 years. The annual outdoor sittings of Tynwald, the Manx Parliament,
date back to the Viking settlements which began in the eighth century of the
first millennium AD. No other parliament in the world has such a long
unbroken record."

Jamie
manxman - 23 Apr 2006 01:39 GMT
The latest DNA testing from Britain shows a remarkable similarity of
the DNA between all persons in the British Isles and that this was not
closely related to the Germanic Peoples, nor any evidence of
Mediterranean Influence (Roman). The Saxons etc invaded conquered and
supplanted ideas and traditions but were never of a number to supplant
the native population.

The Isle of Man as mentioned does have a heavy norse influence in Law
and institutions but once again a similar situation to the rest of
Britain, new ideas etc. The majority of surnames on the Isle of Man are
still of Celtic origin as is the native language Manx, My own surname
is an example being KNEEN which is of Manx Celtic derived from Mac
Cianain.

Norse was not spoken as a language of everyday use by the majority of
people. And though Tynwald is a Norse (viking) invention the language
of law and legislation is Manx, a Celtic Language. The institution of
the Isle came from the period of the Kingdom of Man and the Isles under
Somerled. Somerled was the son of a norse princess and native Celtic
Lord of South West Scotland. He gave rise to the Clan McDonald.

A modern example of such supplanting could be Singapore which has
English as one of the official languages and is widely used but the
people are not English.
ray o'hara - 23 Apr 2006 06:55 GMT
> The latest DNA testing from Britain shows a remarkable similarity of
> the DNA between all persons in the British Isles and that this was not
[quoted text clipped - 20 lines]
> English as one of the official languages and is widely used but the
> people are not English.

the general looting and raping of the days of yore has seen to ot that we
are all mongrels.
Vaughan Sanders - 23 Apr 2006 08:26 GMT
> The latest DNA testing from Britain shows a remarkable similarity of
> the DNA between all persons in the British Isles and that this was not
> closely related to the Germanic Peoples, nor any evidence of
> Mediterranean Influence (Roman). The Saxons etc invaded conquered and
> supplanted ideas and traditions but were never of a number to supplant
> the native population.

The latest DNA testing says the numbers were between 50 and 100% change in
England, the closest relatives being Friesland.
Strangely all the archaeology and contemporary history point to this scale
of migration and Frisian is the closest language to English.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Friesland
So this native P or Q speaking population were so in awe of a handful of
Germanic pop stars that they changed language completly :-))

Jamie
a.spencer3 - 23 Apr 2006 10:08 GMT
> > The latest DNA testing from Britain shows a remarkable similarity of
> > the DNA between all persons in the British Isles and that this was not
[quoted text clipped - 10 lines]
> So this native P or Q speaking population were so in awe of a handful of
> Germanic pop stars that they changed language completly :-))

I only know a bit of Frisian from a modern context via Dutch friends. It is
indeed closer to English than Dutch itself, for instance.
A favourite joke was that the Frisian order to cavalry to mount sounded like
'Scramble up the beasties'!

Surreyman
Vaughan Sanders - 23 Apr 2006 08:44 GMT
snip

> The Isle of Man as mentioned does have a heavy norse influence in Law
> and institutions but once again a similar situation to the rest of
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
> Somerled. Somerled was the son of a norse princess and native Celtic
> Lord of South West Scotland. He gave rise to the Clan McDonald.

Gall Gaedhil
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gall-Gaidheal

You will find that Man had been under the control of the Dublin Vikings or
the powerful Norse earls of Orkney and of course Cnut, long before Somerled
who is very likely  of Gall Gaedhil origin.

> A modern example of such supplanting could be Singapore which has
> English as one of the official languages and is widely used but the
> people are not English.

A lot of people speak English as a second language as once they did Latin.

Jamie
hippo - 24 Apr 2006 16:09 GMT
"manxman" wrote in message

> Norse was not spoken as a language of everyday use by the majority of
> people. And though Tynwald is a Norse (viking) invention the language
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
> English as one of the official languages and is widely used but the
> people are not English.

Exactly, and India where English is an official language and far more
popular than Hindi in that role. We forget the capacity of a ruling stratum,
which can be very small in numbers, to change the culture and language of
the indigenous population.

Modern research indicates that Aryan invaders of Europe were comparatively
few in numbers but changed the culture and language almost completely,
leaving today only Basque, and probably Sami, remnants of pre-invasion
languages. Ethnic Continental German invaders of Britain probably numbered
less than 50,000 and included some, but by no means the majority, of the
Angles, Frisians, Saxons, and Jutes. I think the gross number was less than
30,000, most of them men. -the Troll
Thur - 24 Apr 2006 18:14 GMT
> Modern research indicates that Aryan invaders of Europe were comparatively
> few in numbers but changed the culture and language almost completely,
> leaving today only Basque, and probably Sami, remnants of pre-invasion
> languages. the Troll

The interesting questions about languages for me are:-
Why was the Brittonic langauge so completely
extinguished in England, (being no remnants in English)
and how did English develop and survive for so long
without the printing press or any period where it
became the first language, - until about the 15th
Century?
Why are so many words of English shared with
Friesian, considering that any influence must have
disappeared early in the Saxon invasions?
Maybe Friesian is one of those languages which has
never developed and hybridised the way English has?

I always try to imagine the fate of the native
American Indian cultures and languages and try to
compare them if possible with the Celtic experience,
but I think that fails when looking closer.

I suspect that the spread of language type accross
Europe was parallel to the spread of conquest, trade,
technological advance and occupation.

Signature

Thur

hippo - 24 Apr 2006 21:29 GMT
"Thur" wrote in message

> "hippo" wrote in message

>> Modern research indicates that Aryan invaders of Europe were
>> comparatively few in numbers but changed the culture and language almost
[quoted text clipped - 22 lines]
> Europe was parallel to the spread of conquest, trade,
> technological advance and occupation.

Yes, it's a fascinating subject.

Friesian is a West Germanic (low German) dialect. Old Friesian was once
spoken along the entire North Sea Continental coast line. The Angles,
Saxons, island Frieslanders, and  Jutes would have spoken a similar dialect
in the 4th and 5th centuries CE.

Languages in those days were not as often passed on by commerce as conquest.
Latin speakers were so few in ancient Britain that it never caught on as the
primary language. French was the same. Those who spoke both tended to remain
separate as a class or caste and didn't much mix with the native speakers.
The Germanic invaders were different. They were small farmers, just like
most of the Romano-Britons, and absorbed them by marriage, taking them into
their armies, and possibly, for a time, enslaving them (in the German sense
which meant they worked beside their masters and lived beside them with
their own families as near-equals). Ancient Germans were not ethnocentric
and absorbed many other peoples in their conquests from the first century
BCE including the Celtic tribes which originally inhabited what is now
Germany. The key word here is absorption rather than mere conquest. -the
Troll
kenney@cix.compulink.co.uk - 25 Apr 2006 10:56 GMT
> Why was the Brittonic langauge so completely
> extinguished in England,

There is no evidence of how widely it was being spoken at the
time the Anglo-Saxons arrived. After all Britain had been under
Roman occupation for roughly 400 years. If the majority of
Britons were Latin speakers that would explain a lot.

Ken Young
hippo - 25 Apr 2006 16:22 GMT
<kenney@cix wrote in message

> In article (Thur) wrote:

>> Why was the Brittonic langauge so completely
>> extinguished in England,
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> Roman occupation for roughly 400 years. If the majority of
> Britons were Latin speakers that would explain a lot.

There were too many areas outside direct Roman influence for Latin to have
become the common language in Britain. It certainly didn't in Scotland,
Wales, or Cornwall, and Glamorgan, at least, had been heavily garrisoned
from end to end from the first century. The fact it was the primary written
language for monuments and the like doesn't change that. Folks in a position
to live in the cities and put up monuments were from the class where
speaking Latin was likely a status symbol, administrators, or soldiers. The
Britons who escaped Britannia for Brittany didn't take Latin with them. -the
Troll
John Cartmell - 25 Apr 2006 16:46 GMT
> <kenney@cix wrote in message

> > In article (Thur) wrote:

> >> Why was the Brittonic langauge so completely
> >> extinguished in England,
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> > Roman occupation for roughly 400 years. If the majority of
> > Britons were Latin speakers that would explain a lot.

> There were too many areas outside direct Roman influence for Latin to have
> become the common language in Britain. It certainly didn't in Scotland,
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
> speaking Latin was likely a status symbol, administrators, or soldiers. The
> Britons who escaped Britannia for Brittany didn't take Latin with them.

What makes you think there was a 'common language'? Pre-radio it was tricky
for people from Blackburn and Liverpool to understand one another - never mind
Keswick, Gateshead, Bristol and London. And that's in a literate culture with
easy transport by train. Think yourself back to a pre-literate culture with no
easy transport and a time period that separates us from Shakespere. 'Common
language'? I don't believe even Latin would have been common over that area
and time.

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a.spencer3 - 25 Apr 2006 17:12 GMT
> > <kenney@cix wrote in message
>
[quoted text clipped - 24 lines]
> language'? I don't believe even Latin would have been common over that area
> and time.

And even spoken Latin changed and evolved all over the place, of course,
until it disappeared up its own ......... outside of the Church, and
relatively quickly, in fact.

Surreyman
hippo - 25 Apr 2006 17:36 GMT
"John Cartmell" wrote in message

> In article  hippo wrote:
>
[quoted text clipped - 36 lines]
> area
> and time.

Bad choice of terms, I should have written 'language of the common folks'.
Of course you are right. The Parisi, Belgae, and other tribes were a late
migration from Gaul with others from many earlier waves, so there must have
been a wide difference in local dialects. -the Troll
Vaughan Sanders - 24 Apr 2006 20:50 GMT
> "manxman" wrote in message
>
[quoted text clipped - 21 lines]
> Angles, Frisians, Saxons, and Jutes. I think the gross number was less
> than 30,000, most of them men. -the Troll

There are many Indian / Pakistanis who live in Britain today hippo who can't
speak a word of English.

Jamie
hippo - 24 Apr 2006 22:00 GMT
"Vaughan Sanders" wrote in message

> "hippo" wrote in message

>> "manxman" wrote in message
>>
[quoted text clipped - 24 lines]
> There are many Indian / Pakistanis who live in Britain today hippo who
> can't speak a word of English.

Not surprising, but in India it is the language of government,
manufacturing, banking, and trade not to mention the tourist industry. It's
the only language spoken from one end the place to the other, even for
natives, and one reason they can locate call centers there.  -the Troll
manxman - 25 Apr 2006 08:33 GMT
Troll is correct.

There was a recent program on the Australian Broadcasting Commission TV
(ABC) which discussed Indian call centers. That stated that India had
over 100,000,000 well educated English speaking persons in the country.
This was being used as  resource in India from Computer programing to
Call Centers. Apparantly they train the Indian English speakers to
speak with  a local accent for the country the calls come from and use
that countries slang terms. I must say I don't think that has worked
because here in Australia you can always tell when you get sent to a
call center and can never understand what they say. But hey they speak
English of sorts, I can't speak a word of  Hindi so they are one up on
me.
a.spencer3 - 25 Apr 2006 11:32 GMT
> "Vaughan Sanders" wrote in message
>
[quoted text clipped - 33 lines]
> the only language spoken from one end the place to the other, even for
> natives, and one reason they can locate call centers there.  -the Troll

Have you ever received a call from an Indian call centre! :-))

Surreyman
John Cartmell - 25 Apr 2006 11:44 GMT
> Have you ever received a call from an Indian call centre! :-))

From someone 'called' Kevin or Sheila!

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hippo - 25 Apr 2006 15:22 GMT
"a.spencer3" wrote in message

> "hippo" wrote in message

>> "Vaughan Sanders" wrote in message
>>
[quoted text clipped - 40 lines]
>>
> Have you ever received a call from an Indian call centre! :-))

Chuckle, yup, and it's all you guys fault. It was only made possible because
jungle loving (as opposed to desert loving) Englishmen liked to shoot tigers
from on top of elephants. -the Troll
Briton - 25 Apr 2006 17:46 GMT
> Ethnic Continental German invaders of Britain probably numbered
> less than 50,000 and included some, but by no means the majority, of the
> Angles, Frisians, Saxons, and Jutes. I think the gross number was less than
> 30,000, most of them men. -the Troll

Do we know why it was the Angles who gave their name to the country of
England and language of  English?
hippo - 25 Apr 2006 18:17 GMT
"Briton" wrote in message

> "hippo" wrote in message

>> Ethnic Continental German invaders of Britain probably numbered
>> less than 50,000 and included some, but by no means the majority, of the
[quoted text clipped - 4 lines]
> Do we know why it was the Angles who gave their name to the country of
> England and language of  English?

Most of the invaders spoke a language similar to the Angles. England, of
course, comes from Angle+land., but why the whole was given the name of the
of just East Anglia and Mercia was probably luck but may have had something
to do with the international standing of Offa. -the Troll
allan connochie - 25 Apr 2006 18:56 GMT
> "Briton" wrote in message
>
[quoted text clipped - 13 lines]
> of just East Anglia and Mercia was probably luck but may have had something
> to do with the international standing of Offa. -the Troll

May be wrong but I thought that Bede (from Anglian Northumbria) was one of
the first, if not the first, at least as far as we know, to use the term
English.

cheers

Allan
hippo - 25 Apr 2006 20:07 GMT
"allan connochie" wrote in message

> "hippo" wrote in message

>> "Briton" wrote in message
>> >
[quoted text clipped - 11 lines]
> the first, if not the first, at least as far as we know, to use the term
> English.

Could easily be true, at least in writing. Anglia must have been called
alternatively Angleland since nearly the beginning. -the Troll
Briton - 25 Apr 2006 19:19 GMT
> "Briton" wrote in message
>
[quoted text clipped - 13 lines]
> have had something to do with the international standing of Offa.
> -the Troll

Ok...thanks.
Thur - 25 Apr 2006 19:26 GMT
> "Briton" wrote in message
>
[quoted text clipped - 13 lines]
> the of just East Anglia and Mercia was probably luck but may have had
> something to do with the international standing of Offa. -the Troll
One of those ethnic groups had to be the more numerous,
or the more successful at conquest, or whatever it takes to
get people naming the whole people after one of them.
Perhaps one of the groups was first to embrace writing.
Writing that is, in their own dialect, rather than the Latin
of Augustine and the rest.
What really must have fixed the language was when
rights to property were written down. From the on
it was probably difficult to have them written in a dialect
which was only recognised in one area, and not by
the power brokers.
Off this topic slightly, it is my guess that the reason some
Brittonic placenames and river names survived is that they
were used as boundary markers first, and then included
and used in English documents, sealing them into the language.
Signature

Thur

hippo - 25 Apr 2006 20:41 GMT
"Thur" wrote in message
\
> "hippo" wrote in message

>> "Briton" wrote in message
>>
[quoted text clipped - 14 lines]
>> the of just East Anglia and Mercia was probably luck but may have had
>> something to do with the international standing of Offa. -the Troll

> One of those ethnic groups had to be the more numerous,
> or the more successful at conquest, or whatever it takes to
[quoted text clipped - 11 lines]
> were used as boundary markers first, and then included
> and used in English documents, sealing them into the language.

One would, at first, suspect the Jutes in Kent as the most important, since
Kent was closer to the continent so that most trade must have passed through
it. It does seem to have been richer earlier on from the quality of the
grave goods found, and had better connections with the outside world at a
time when ships had neither keel nor sails.

When European explorers came to a river or bay, they often asked a native
guide what it was called, and then wrote it down approximating the sound.
The result was often monstrosities like Peking for Beijing and no one today
knows where 'Hong Kong' came from. It isn't English and it wasn't what the
Chinese called the place either. Now, of course, they do.

The US and New Zealand aren't too different with a mix of native and English
named places and geographic features. We have the Stono, Wando, Sulkahachee,
and Cumbahee, Ashley and Cooper Rivers. -the Troll
Ian Dalziel - 26 Apr 2006 10:41 GMT
>When European explorers came to a river or bay, they often asked a native
>guide what it was called, and then wrote it down approximating the sound.
>The result was often monstrosities like Peking for Beijing and no one today
>knows where 'Hong Kong' came from. It isn't English and it wasn't what the
>Chinese called the place either. Now, of course, they do.

The Romans must have done the same - the Roman camp at York was, by
any interpretation I've seen, a green-field development, yet its name
Eboracum is reckoned to have Celtic derivation.
Signature


Ian

a.spencer3 - 26 Apr 2006 11:15 GMT
> >When European explorers came to a river or bay, they often asked a native
> >guide what it was called, and then wrote it down approximating the sound.
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
> Eboracum is reckoned to have Celtic derivation.
> --

Yep, the Romans just Latinised the local name which had various bases
similar to 'Ebor'.
That was supposedly from a personal name, itself derived from 'yew tree' -
or perhaps 'boar'!
Iorvik was the Scandinavian version of the same name, which evolved into
Iork etc.

Surreyman.
hippo - 26 Apr 2006 15:05 GMT
"Ian Dalziel" wrote in message

>>When European explorers came to a river or bay, they often asked a native
>>guide what it was called, and then wrote it down approximating the sound.
[quoted text clipped - 6 lines]
> any interpretation I've seen, a green-field development, yet its name
> Eboracum is reckoned to have Celtic derivation.

Legionary bases were almost always green-field constructs. They were vast,
needed a lot of wood for their construction and from which to make charcoal,
and required a cleared zone outside their walls for defensive reasons. Some,
as you say, were named by latinizing the native term for the place or tribal
area in which the base was built. Others, like Bona (Bonn) were straight
Latin. -the Troll
Eugene Holman - 29 Jul 2008 06:50 GMT
In article <fZljk.99240$kx.34475@pd7urf3no>, "Kurt Knoll"
<kknoll3@yahoo.com> wrote:

> It was the Jews who did call for an boycott of German bossiness in newyork
> and London.

Warum betraf dieser Boykott die Juden in Norwegen, Griechenland und
Litauen? Halte ich Kurt Knoll für einen blöden Hund, habe ich die
Berechtigung alle den Namen Kurt tragenden Leute in der ganzen Welt
umzubringen?

> The details of why and how could all be read in German news
> papers from 1918 till 1939.

Während dieser Zeitlang ist Deutschland wortgetreu auferstanden aus
Ruinen. Der Boykott hat diese Entwicklung kaum gehindert.

> Unfortunally this news paper articles about it
> are forbidden to be re printed in German news papers of today.

Mensch, wie du spinnst! Man braucht solche Artikel nicht wiederzudrücken,
weil sie jedem sie zu lesen wollenden in jeder deutschen
Universitätsbibliothek zur Verfügung stehen.

> Kurt Knoll.
<ausgescnitten>

Mit deutschem Gruß,
Eugene Holman
 
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