Book: THE GREAT CRUSADE
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Kitamun - 06 Jun 2009 23:40 GMT Book: THE GREAT CRUSADE
Author: H. P. Willmott
Publisher: The Free Press - 1990
This book was recommended to me as an interesting narrative history of World War Two. Six months ago I bought a copy and read it.
The publisher informs the reader that the author interprets the events covered in this book for the modern reader. The flyleaf states the author debunks many myths of WWII, not the least that of German military excellence.
The author writes in the forward of his irritation with the common belief of German military excellence in World War II. The paragraph:
"If any single aspect of the Second World War can be said to form the thread of this history then I must admit to a contempt for that popularly accepted but pernicious myth of German military excellence which, in THE GREAT CRUSADE, is presented for what it is, both pernicious and a myth. The easy facility with which an uncritical view of German performance in the Second World War has gained widespread acceptance in western society since 1945 has been a source of alternating amusement and irritation to me for obvious reasons. If the German military was as good as conventional wisdom would have us believe, then why did it lose, and in defeat is there not confirmation of a suitably amended Wilde witticism: "To lose one world war may be regarded as a misfortune: to lose both looks like carelessness." Expounded at various parts of this text is the view that the German military genius was in fighting, not in war, that indeed Germany's failure stemmed from her inability to understand the nature of war. In terms of organizing for war Germany was totally outclassed by her enemies, and those who cite the extent of German conquest as evidence of military proficiency fail to note the obvious, that the destruction of the German state after such conquest is evidence of a fundamental German misappreciation of the nature of war itself."
I admit I subscribe to the myth of German military excellence. I tried believing that the German military was merely O.K. for awhile but got tired of feeling sheepish and returned to the conventional myth.
Do I have a blind-spot in regard to the author's assertion?
Kitamun
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David H Thornley - 07 Jun 2009 17:16 GMT > I admit I subscribe to the myth of German military excellence. I tried > believing that the German military was merely O.K. for awhile but got tired > of feeling sheepish and returned to the conventional myth. The key point here is the difference between fighting and waging all aspects of war.
In general, nobody was better that the Germans at the lower levels of combat. Even on the army level, they were able to pull off seeming miracles.
This was largely due to a training regimen that tried to instill certain points of view, including almost insane levels of aggressiveness. (This is valuable in warfare: most decisions in war are made by people who really don't know what's going on. People in such circumstances tend to be timid, and can easily be pushed off-balance by an aggressive display.)
To me, it looks like this was too successful. I get the impression that German generals were more similar to each other than generals of other armies. This means, unfortunately for Germany, that they tended to share the same blind spots that the emphasis on tactical and operational combat and aggressiveness fostered.
For example, German strategic intelligence was generally bad. They consistently overestimated Western capabilities and underestimated Soviet. This led to the undue spreading-out of defenses against Western amphibious offensives that just weren't going to happen, and repeated surprises from the Red Army.
German logistics were not great, either, and that cost them in the East in particular. The impression I've got from my reading is that German generals had a tendency to think supplies should get to them, while generals of other countries had a tendency to realize that supply problems should happen.
The German General Staff approach also seems to have caused the Germans a great deal of difficulty in setting high-level strategic goals. This is very evident in WWI: in the absence of a higher level commander (the Kaiser) setting priorities, Germany attacked primarily west in even-numbered years and east in odd-numbered. This also cost them in the Soviet Union in WWII: consider all the disagreements as to exactly what the army should be trying to accomplish in 1941.
In neither world war did the Germans organize their economy all that well. They certainly tried in WWII, but it doesn't look to me like they did as well as the Allies. German companies did not cooperate all that well in WWII, unlike the totalitarian centralism of the Soviets or the rather different central control in Britain and the US.
At least in WWII, Hitler controlled the foreign policy, not that he was all that good at it. In WWI, the General Staff made sure that the only alternative available in case of war with Russia was to invade Belgium and march on Paris. Later on, the General Staff made the decisions on how much to antagonize the US.
If you read a good history of the Franco-Prussian war of 1870-71, you'll notice a lot of these things coming into play. However, the Germans had considerable numerical superiority, and the French generals were mostly picked for political reliability, and so the high-level dissent and the potential logistics issues didn't cause problems. It's fairly easy to see how they could have.
So, I agree with Willmott. The Germans were very good at fighting. Nobody else fought battles better. These things make good reading, and while one is reading about an outnumbered and badly supplied German force fighting brilliantly to restore a bad strategic situation, it is often hard to ask a few questions: why were the Germans outnumbered there? why were they badly supplied? how did the strategic situation get that bad?
This is compounded by the fact that many of the better-reading accounts were by Germans, who generally didn't understand why they were losing. Instead, they tend to blame it on overall force ratios, which they tend to grossly distort.
Compare the assorted German goals in Barbarossa. Now, compare Eisenhower's plan to defeat as many Germans as possible west of the Rhine: a plan that was, in general, carried out, and which reflected logistics. It wasn't brilliant, but it was realistic and generally consistently carried out.
 Signature David H. Thornley | If you want my opinion, ask. david@thornley.net | If you don't, flee. http://www.thornley.net/~thornley/david/ | O-
jgd@cix.compulink.co.uk - 07 Jun 2009 18:22 GMT > I admit I subscribe to the myth of German military excellence. I > tried believing that the German military was merely O.K. for awhile > but got tired of feeling sheepish and returned to the conventional > myth. I think you've missed the author's point. The Germans were often very effective at fighting at the individual soldier and small unit level, and in the early parts of the war, used mobility far better than most of their opponents. The causes of this effectiveness seem to lie in the high quality of training of their officers and NCOs, and the fact that they'd lost WWI, causing them to re-examine much of their system, and purge obsolete practices. Some of their equipment was also good. By contrast, their opponents had to learn painful lessons and reform their conduct of land operations before they could fight the Germans on equal terms. The French got overrun before they could learn; the British were saved by the sea; the USSR lost vast amounts of territory.
However, German political direction and grand strategy were dire. Had they been able to separate the UK from France, and thus take on Poland, France, and the USSR in separate sequential wars, as seems to have been the intention, they might have reached stability as a continental empire. But they failed to keep the UK out of the war, conquer it, or force it to make peace, requiring them to keep on spending money and lives on the U-boat campaign. That wasn't needed for war on the USSR, and brought the USA to a state of undeclared hostilities. They then declared war on the USA when they could have left it to the Japanese, thus rousing the USA to a maximum effort. And from then on, they just had too much against them.
The reasons for that poor strategy were tied up with Nazi politics and ideology. Understanding that is hard work, but you do have to realise that the Nazi leadership really did believe that the UK, USSR and USA were all controlled behind the scenes by the same Jewish conspiracy, and that it was necessary to involve the USA in the war so as to reduce its time to arm while at peace. At least, that's what it seems to have been, as far as I can tell.
 Signature John Dallman, jgd@cix.co.uk, HTML mail is treated as probable spam.
kenney@cix.compulink.co.uk - 07 Jun 2009 18:23 GMT > Do I have a blind-spot in regard to the author's assertion? Not in my opinion. The problem is that the author is confusing a lot of things as the so called myth. Including the fact that it existed at all. I have seen a lot of claims for individual examples of German military excellence like the invasion of France but their are also contrasting examples like Kursk or the BoB for that matter. Still the main problem was that Germany had assumed that they could only win a short war and therefore only prepared for a short war or at least short campaigns. This worked against Poland and France but not against the USSR. One myth that is common is that German equipment was the best. This is certainly not true. For example Soviet artillery outranged the German field artillery.
Ken Young
Don Phillipson - 07 Jun 2009 18:23 GMT Quoting: THE GREAT CRUSADE Author: H. P. Willmott
> " If the German military was as good as conventional wisdom would > have us believe, then why did it lose . . . ? [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > conquest is evidence of a fundamental German misappreciation of the nature > of war itself." We should first read the 400-page book, but this summary is unpromising so far as it talks about vague "German" aims and achievements instead of identifying specific characters of the Nazi political regime, OKH, German technology and so on.
1. "Military genius" is best demonstrated by actual cases in which smaller armies defeat larger armies because of superior tactics (e.g. Rommel's Afrika Korps) or superior equipment (aircraft cannon rather than solid-shot machine guns) or superior intelligence (U-boat forces reading the British merchant navy cipher) etc.
2. "Understanding the nature of war" looks like a string of words that actually explains nothing. Obviously in 1939 no veteran of WW1 "understood the nature of war" so far as unfamiliar with (a) radar, (b) effective aerial bombing, (c) modern ciphers and codes and disinformation techniques, and so on -- perhaps not even generals who had written polemics or manuals for new weapons (e.g. Guderian, Fuller.) But however we define or recognize "understanding the nature of war" it seems impossible to find in this understanding a peculiarly German or French or British character.
3. So far as foresight is concerned, military orthodoxy made in 1939 various predictions e.g. -- No European country could "afford" war expenditures for longer than a year or two; -- No civilian population could endure modern bombing. -- Larger armies usually defeat smaller armies. -- The enemy can be paralysed by "surgical" elimination of essential items in his system (e.g. ball bearings, oil fuel.) Actual events usually confirmed these orthodox doctrines, but not invariably. E.g. smaller armies sometimes defeated larger ones (as war colleges had attempted to teach for centuries.) These events constitute the actual stuff of the history of WW2 -- but they do not by themselves offer arguments how well country A or country B "understood the nature of war."
The argument that the winners understood better "the nature of war" looks like circular reasoning. It does not tell the story of WW2 and, after the story is finished, it does not add anything to our knowledge.
 Signature Don Phillipson Carlsbad Springs (Ottawa, Canada)
Geoffrey Sinclair - 10 Jun 2009 19:09 GMT > Book: THE GREAT CRUSADE > Author: H. P. Willmott
> The author writes in the forward of his irritation with the common belief > of German military excellence in World War II. The paragraph: [quoted text clipped - 25 lines] > > Do I have a blind-spot in regard to the author's assertion? Perhaps one way to test the blind spot would be to explain why the author is considered wrong. Also excellence needs to be defined, given perfection is impossible, what are the weightings given to the various successes and failures?
Napoleon did not find the Germans that hard to defeat, the Germans undertook considerable changes given the results were so poor from their point of view.
However I presume what is being talked about is the hundred years or so between the end of Napoleon and the end of WWII.
The author is pointing out military excellence should result in wins or at least non disastrous losses, whereas Germany won in the 19th century and lost disastrously in the 20th.
The 20th century losses tend to result in the splitting of German performance into strategy (good in the 19th, bad in the 20th century) and tactics (considered generally good throughout the period).
One factor that needs to be accounted for is basic war making capacity, the German population grew much faster than its main neighbours in the second half of the 19th century and early 20th century, France grew by 10% between 1870 and 1914, Germany by 66%. In the 19th century coal and iron resources were a major part of war capacity, these Germany had in abundance, as oil, light metals and steel became more important Germany's war making ability began to decline.
To stay with WWII. As the saying goes armies prepare to fight the last war, and since no one prepares to lose the loser of the last war is usually the one to try something new. What does the Nazi decision to undertake unsustainable peace time military expenditure and therefore either risking collapse or forcing the need to use the military count as, a military or political decision? It certainly helped give the Germans an edge in the early fighting.
Reports of German excellence in WWII tend to be concentrated on the army, not the navy or air force. The following is a case against claiming excellence.
To start with the navy, its pre war program was a repeat of WWI in strategic terms, the aircraft carrier was way down the list of ships it wanted, and submarines were not emphasised. The surface fleet did reasonably well in WWII in the limited opportunities it had, given the losses in capturing Norway. So tactics reasonable. The S-boat was developed and used effectively, as was the u-boat. The U-boats were normally used properly, as commerce raiders so that was good strategy.
The difficulty in navies changing course was highlighted when the U-boats were defeated, even small warships take years to design and build. It took until 1945 for the Germans to field the first new designs that pushed the balance back in their direction. It should be noted u-boat tactics did not change much during the war, wolf packs were a pre war innovation that required numbers to use consistently and a lack of merchant ships sailing alone, a high percentage of merchant ship losses were when sailing alone during the first 3 years of the war.
In the period September 1939 to April 1940 the Germans lost 23 u-boats versus the sinking of 224 merchant ships of 810,067 GRT, or around 1 loss per 35,000 GRT. This is not a highly profitable exchange rate, and it was a warning about the balance of power of the current submarines and anti submarine ships. A pre war warning was the effect of radar on the proposed night surface attack plans. The two warnings were largely ignored. The effect of aircraft on u-boats was largely met by moving operations further away from land. Since aircraft carriers existed there was in theory no ocean place where aircraft could not go but there does not seem to have been much urgency placed on the problem even as longer ranged allied aircraft came into service. As long as there was an air gap in the route to England the problem seems to have been assumed unimportant.
So discounted the effects of aircraft on operations, the problem radar would produce and the early war losses.
I should note there were losses to submarine laid mines early in the war and of course an early policy of seeking out the RN which meant more successes and more losses in the time period.
Moving to the air force, it was probably the best air force in existence in 1939, given equipment, including self sealing fuel tanks as standard, radio beams for navigation, and doctrine, it had learnt some to most of the lessons on offer in the Spanish civil war. With its leader being a senior government figure it had little to fear from co-operating with the army, and in any case it was largely staffed by ex army men. Relations with the navy were less successful.
One Spanish civil war lesson was bombers were hard to intercept, though not as hard as the original doctrine, the ratio of bombers to fighters was increased but not enough as the losses over France and England would show. So a lesson learnt but not well enough given the later experience, how is this counted?
The Luftwaffe was a major beneficiary of the Nazi policy of rearmament beyond peace time ability to pay for it. Air forces take a long time to assemble, so the Luftwaffe had the numbers in the 1940 fighting. It also had the advantage the allied air forces had not prepared for mobile warfare, as airfields were threatened air units went through major disruptions when they had to move.
Strategically the Luftwaffe ignored just about all lessons from 1940, failing to alter its force mix or increase its supply of new aircraft and aircrew, the result was the crisis of late 1941 and a lack of force in 1943 and 1944. It also never came up with a way of consistently dealing with escorted bomber formations.
So it is hard to mark the Air Force and Navy as excellent, given the size of the mistakes made.
This leaves the German army, generally the panzer divisions, but also the infantry tactics with its emphasis on crew served weapons. The panzer division idea was tried pre war, refined in Poland and further refined in France. It was further refined in 1942 to where tanks became primarily an anti tank weapon, rather than the pre war ideas of trying to leave enemy tanks to the anti tank guns.
The overall fighting in 1939 and 1940 shows certainly qualifies as excellence in tactics and strategy (assuming we ignore the fact the Germans had started the war). The Germans learnt from the fighting in Poland and undertook a training program to bring the reserve formations to higher standards. Small unit tactics were clearly better than any opponent.
The fighting in the western desert consistently showed the Germans better at mobile warfare than the British.
One reason for the German success was the realisation is the armies could move faster thanks to tanks and trucks then there had to be faster command structures, this was an advantage they retained against most opponents for most of the war, it was most noticeable in France in 1940 and in the east.
Is the decision to invade the USSR considered a military of political one? How about the idea the Red Army would allow itself to be defeated close to the borders, given the German supply system could not deal with a Red army withdrawal like that done against Napoleon?
There is usually a modifier or excuse given the to the German army performance due to Hitler's control. If that is given similar ones need to be given to the Red Army. It had lost large numbers of experienced officers in the purges, and had Stalin in charge. Another point is the cost to the USSR of being unable to put radios in every tank and aircraft, meaning they could not easily warn each other or co-ordinate, this was a real disadvantage tactically.
Italy is noted as terrain favouring the defender.
The German army facing the allies in Normandy was considerably more experienced, from the commanders on down, Montgomery had never commanded an Army Group in battle for example, versus von Rundstedt. Most allied divisions used had seen little or no combat before Normandy. Take a look at the steady introduction of inexperienced US formations into combat in France in 1944 and 1945. Also the limits imposed by the allied supply lines.
A lot of the idea of German army excellence is the way it fought well when outnumbered, western allied armies rarely had units in that position, so while the Germans deserve the credit for the performance in those combats there is the down side of why were they in the position at all?
The army tended to make good use of the resources available and was tested in a way only the armies in the east were tested. The Finns appear to have held their performance, the other axis allied armies were rated as not as good as the Germans but they also tended to have inferior equipment. Western allied armies had far fewer crisis moments.
The German army generally retained its performance even after years of losses, it understood rebuilding units was generally better than fielding entirely new ones, something Hitler tended to ignore.
So the army generally had good tactics, won significant victories in the first half of the war, performed well under pressure, coped with supply shortages, with the withdrawal of air support and took until around March 1945 to fall apart, the allied armies in France and Germany taking around 370,000 prisoners that month.
On the fighting front there is no doubt the German army set the standard for most of the war.
The big blind spot of the German army was supply, from constantly changing weapon specifications which slowed down production, to inadequate supply forces, the invasion of the USSR being the most obvious example. As a result units were continually under strength and under supplied.
Given the concentration on the actual fighting it is not surprising the German army is often rated as excellent, you need to decide though how much it handicapped itself by continually neglecting the supply situation and of course the strategic direction.
Geoffrey Sinclair Remove the nb for email.
Rich Rostrom - 10 Jun 2009 22:19 GMT On Jun 10, 1:09 pm, "Geoffrey Sinclair" <gsinclai...@froggy.com.au> wrote:
> There is usually a modifier or excuse given the to the German army > performance due to Hitler's control. If that is given similar ones need > to be given to the Red Army. It had lost large numbers of experienced > officers in the purges, and had Stalin in charge. Yes and no. There were differences in the ways Hitler and Stalin meddled with their armed forces.
Hitler's meddling was largely confined to strategic and operationa decisions. This did not affect the quality of the army, it affected what was done with it.
Stalin's meddling deeply affected the fabric of the army (by removing a large proportion of its experienced officers), but AIUI he did not often intervene in operational decisions, and the Soviet strategic situation was far simpler than Germany's.
Against this is the colossal error, for which Stalin was solely responsibly, of allowing the Germans to attack with tactical, operational, and strategic surprise.
This blunder cost the Soviet army an additional large portion of its experience and training. It also forced the Soviets to push semi- trained troops into battle to prevent collapse, causing further excess losses and the deployment of yet more raw troops later on.
All this greatly aggravated Soviet quality problems right to the end of the war.
So - yes, the Soviets should get break for having the burden of Stalin - but that break is an excuse for poor quality.
The Germans get a break for Hitler's misguided orders - which resulted in defeats in spite of their troop quality.
Kitamun - 15 Jun 2009 03:15 GMT > > I admit I subscribe to the myth of German military excellence. I tried
> > believing that the German military was merely O.K. for awhile but got
> > tired of feeling sheepish and returned to the conventional myth.
> > Do I have a blind-spot in regard to the author's assertion?
> From: "Geoffrey Sinclair" <gsinclairnb@froggy.com.au>
> Perhaps one way to test the blind spot would be to explain why the
> author is considered wrong. The author is a military historian that lectures at war colleges and writes books, many of which have been well received; I buy used books and read them - I would feel uppity to claim him wrong. But I'll give a try at explaining why I think the author is unclear in this case.
Professor Willmott states that the German military in World War II was not of excellent quality. He claims that the commonly held belief that they were excellent is a myth. The author asserts, as explanation, "that the German military genius was in fighting, not in war."
The passage "that the German military genius was in fighting, not in war" is irresolvable to me as it stands, but a small change of wording improves my comfort zone. I'll post my thoughts on them and welcome any comments and corrections.
* Military: generally, the military is a branch of the government, and is a segment of, and answerable to, the government.
* War: (verb) Make or wage war.
The military performs it's tactical function by fighting. The author admires this in the Germans. That leaves the strategic aspects of the German military performance as the suspect that ruins their excellence rating.
I understand the German military made a number of strategic errors during campaigns in Russia. It happens. But the major strategic short-comings that impacted the German military was made by nonmilitary departments of the Nazi party. The crappy balance of payments forever, the irrational apportioning of funding for different branches of the military, the decision of not to put the economy on total war production until 1943, the decision to do war on Poland in 1939 when the military maintained they could not be prepared for big-league war before 1944, the decision to employ atrocity to an extreme degree as policy in the East. Etc.
I would enlarge the scope of strategic culprits in the statement. How about: "I must admit to a contempt for that popularly accepted but pernicious myth of Nazi Germany's military excellence in war..."
Not criticizing, just saying.
Kitamun
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LC - 15 Jun 2009 10:54 GMT > The author is a military historian that lectures at war colleges and writes > books, many of which have been well received; I buy used books and read > them - I would feel uppity to claim him wrong. But I'll give a try at > explaining why I think the author is unclear in this case. Being disrespectful to published authors is quite all right, as long as the objections are argued. What would the purpose of this group be, otherwise?
> Professor Willmott states that the German military in World War II was not > of excellent quality. He claims that the commonly held belief that they were > excellent is a myth. The author asserts, as explanation, "that the German > military genius was in fighting, not in war." There are two factors at work, here.
The first is the huge volume of books being published, along with associated volume of media & Internet buzz. This means a book that goes over well-trodden ground adding various nuances and smallish corrections in the hope of providing a more subtly balanced view of the event has exactly zero chance of gaining attention by itself. Far better for the author to advertize his work as radically altering commonly-held (mis-)perceptions of the event. This usually involves setting up a strawman argument the better to demolish it. For what it's worth, the notion that Germany was an effective warrior society has been dispelled for decades, now.
The second, and more interesting, is the difference between fighting and war. The German army was generally very good, yet the Germans kept losing their wars (see also Mackey's otherwise forgettable "Why Germans lose wars"). There are several ways to resolve that contradiction. The first way is to argue that the Germans were fabulous warriors but were simply overwhelmed by impossible odds. From a grand strategic point of view, WWII isn't all that interesting: after all, the odds of Germany winning started as remote, briefly went up to "marginal" for a year starting in mid-1940, before sinking back to "impossible". So a possible narrative would be to paint the Germans as modern-day Spartans in the Thermopyles, fighting and defeating countless numbers of their inferior (and barbarian) enemies before being smothered in superior numbers. The nice thing about this narrative is that it appeals both to those with a pro-German political agenda, claiming that the Wehrmacht really was an elite apolitical force and it was all Hitler's fault, and to those who just like conservative military societies e.g. there's much in common between this view and the "lost cause" narrative of the ACW. Another nice thing about this narrative is that it holds a grain of truth: Germany *was* beaten by opponents commanding vastly superior resources. Ellis' "Brute Force" makes that thesis, Overy's "Why the Allies Won" attempts to rebute it but actually reinforces it, and Tooze's "Wages of Destruction" lays it out again in economic terms.
Of course, there are also problems with this heroic narrative. The first problem is that, just as the Thermopyles Spartans weren't just outnumbered, they were also out-thought when the Persians infiltrated a party on a mountain path to outflank them, the whole German conduct of the war pretty much guaranteed that Germany would be pitted against impossible odds. Correcting this historical error also addresses the more serious problem that this narrative has: it makes the Allies pass off as inferior. So another narrative comes up, one in which the Germans were good enough fighters, but hopeless at organizing war itself. The essential parts of the heroic narrative are therefore kept, namely that the noble Wehrmacht was really good, but Hitler is made into even more of a buffoon for mismanaging his economy and so on. Further, the Allies are deemed superior at "the higher levels of combat" (this implies in David's post upthread which rates the Germans as superior in the lower levels), so face is saved.
Now for what it's worth, my impression is that the two are linked. A warrior society, or one possessed with a good army, will tend to rely on it and thus neglect other aspects. In 1859, the Piedmontese fought the Austrians over Italian independence, and called in the French to help. In the first clashes between French and Austrian troops, the French quickly proved to have the better infantry. From that point on, French generalship pretty much consisted in throwing troops head-on against Austrian formations, trusting in that innate superiority to win the day. The result was victory at Solferino, but one characterized by very hard fighting (and attendant losses) in an unimaginative frontal clash, Austrian generalship being no better.
Fast forward to 1939. The Allies have this - correct - perception that Germany has a superior army, relying on a lot of tanks and planes for its spearhead. As a result, they prepare to build - or purchase in the US - quite a few of these themselves. In 1940, the French fall to what is widely perceived at the time as superior numbers of tank and planes. The BEF is rudely sent packing, Britain feverishly produces tanks and planes. During 1941-42, the British keep on churning out large numbers of tanks and planes, because they don't perceive their situation as having significantly improved (except in the air). The Luftwaffe can still give the RAF a good fight, and in the desert British formations are usually bested by German ones or, if when they do happen to prevail it is at heavy cost (Crusader). My point here is that the Allies knew from the start that they didn't have the superior fighting force so they had to plan around that weakness. They could hope to build one, but they knew that they must more than match German numbers to prevail. By contrast, the Germans had enough tanks and planes to go pretty much wherever they wanted, yes they were outnumbered but they had been before and had still won, so what was the problem? Reality eventually hit home, with the Luftwaffe being the first to realize that it was involved in an unwinnable attrition contest in which it was losing its previous quality edge as well, but by then it was too late.
What I'm arguing here is that there really are no "higher" vs "lower" levels of strategy. France had a better grand strategy and a more rationalized war economy than Germany, yet inferior battlefield performance lost it the war in 1940. Power matters. On the other hand, a country like the Soviet Union never matched German tactical proficiency, yet learned to organize its war effort around it, while Soviet generals evolved a doctrine that would play to their own strengths without trying to match German tactical performance. The result was a series of bloody noses at the tactical level, but the red flag flying over the Reichstag.
Wilmott's point is that the Germans confused having the better army and being in the better position to win the war. They did have the better army, but for various reasons they set themselves up to lose the war. That is a very common failing: most countries with a superior force will be tempted to use it as a trump card. See post-WWII US confidence that air power could do practically everything, from preventing Chinese reinforcements to reach North Korea to bombing Vietnam back to the stone age, not to mention bombing Milosevic into submission. See how Soviet trust in its armor could be misplaced in Afghanistan of Chechnya. In terms of strategic misapprehenshion, the Germans have had plenty of company.
> The military performs it's tactical function by fighting. The author admires > this in the Germans. That leaves the strategic aspects of the German > military performance as the suspect that ruins their excellence rating. Your first sentence is the mistake the Germans made. The military doesn't just fight, it decides which fights are worth committing to and how they will be fought.
The Germans were excellent at fighting, but not nearly as good at picking their fights after 1938.
> I understand the German military made a number of strategic errors during > campaigns in Russia. It happens. It certainly does. Stalin's strategic blunders fully matched Hitler's. What saved him was that his strategic situation was simpler, so he eventually managed (barely) to recover.
> But the major strategic short-comings that > impacted the German military was made by nonmilitary departments of the Nazi > party. A lot of major strategic shortcomings were made by military departments as well. The WWI German army had failed to appreciate the importance of the tank.
The WWII German Air Force failed to appreciate how much it needed to grow for 1941-42. Nor was the German military entirely consistent in its strategy: see the conflicting drives in Russia, alternating policies in the Mediterranean and unresolved strategic or procurement dilemmas over naval warfare.
> The crappy balance of payments forever, the irrational apportioning > of funding for different branches of the military, the decision of not to > put the economy on total war production until 1943, Without the crappy balance of payments, there could be no rearmament. Germany would be richer, but there is no way that it could bully the democracies into letting it have Austria, let alone the Sudeten. Note that the military had no problem at all with rearmament, and were more than willing to accept Hitler's assurances that the balance of payments would take care of itself. Nor were they overly dismayed by the prospect of war, what they feared was a war that they might not win.
BTW, the German economy was more fully mobilized than that of other belligerents since the late 1930s. The 1943 miracle was mostly propaganda that suited both Speer's and Goebbels' agendas. This has been discussed in this group before - see this thread as one such example:
http://groups.google.com/group/soc.history.war.world-war-ii/browse_thread/thread /429a5ab455685efd/d5ef2ac4953bbf93?hl=en&#d5ef2ac4953bbf93
> the decision to do war > on Poland in 1939 when the military maintained they could not be prepared > for big-league war before 1944, Hitler's general complained that they wouldn't be ready before 1944, Hitler retorted that Germany's opponents would be even readier by then. He was right.
If Germany was to strike - not a particularly good idea, I'll grant you, though as mentioned above that wasn't his generals' main quibble - then 1939 was a better time than 1944. This was a case of Hitler being more correct than the specialists.
> the decision to employ atrocity to an > extreme degree as policy in the East. Etc. ...which the Wehrmacht had no problem with. Note that atrocities also took place in the West, though on a smaller scale.
LC
Geoffrey Sinclair - 15 Jun 2009 22:44 GMT >> > Do I have a blind-spot in regard to the author's assertion?
>> From: "Geoffrey Sinclair" <gsinclairnb@froggy.com.au> Perhaps one way to >> test the blind spot would be to explain why the [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > read them - I would feel uppity to claim him wrong. But I'll give a try > at explaining why I think the author is unclear in this case. Histories by definition present a simplified version of what happened, and to tell the story often make it clearer to the reader than it was to the people at the time, before we start talking about any factual errors. The histories are there to be evaluated and disagreeing with reasons given is an important part of testing evidence.
> Professor Willmott states that the German military in World War II > was not of excellent quality. The straight answer here is he is correct. Though you need to define excellent. It was superior in some ways and inferior in others, and the superiority and inferiority changed over time. It is easy to define "better than" based on combat results, defining excellent is another matter.
For example the Germans decentralised their artillery, which enabled the guns to come into action quicker at the expense of massed firepower, this worked really well early in the war. The western allies kept their artillery centralised but added communications and forward observers with authority to call in up to all artillery within range. So they had speed and firepower, the Germans did not match this.
> He claims that the commonly held belief that they were excellent is a > myth. The author asserts, as explanation, "that the German military genius > was in fighting, not in war." In effect the Germans could win battles but not wars, tactics instead of strategy. In one sense this is self evident from the results of WWI and WWII, and is a standard interpretation, and generally uses the Heer as the German example.
The Luftwaffe and Kreigsmarine had more problems with tactics than the Heer.
> The passage "that the German military genius was in fighting, not in war" > is irresolvable to me as it stands, but a small change of wording improves [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > > The military performs it's tactical function by fighting. But its strategic function by picking fights it can win, or setting up the fight so it will win.
> The author admires this in the Germans. That leaves the strategic aspects > of the German military performance as the suspect that ruins their > excellence rating. No. As noted there were flaws in the German tactical doctrines, they were present in 1939 but their opponents had even more flaws than the Germans, as their opponents learnt the Germans had to respond, and at times they did not. For the Luftwaffe a big failure was the inability to defeat daylight escorted bomber raids. That was tactics, given the initial ratio of fighters on both sides and became strategy as the Luftwaffe losses could not be properly replaced, thanks to early war decisions on the size and force mix of the Luftwaffe.
> I understand the German military made a number of strategic errors during > campaigns in Russia. It happens. A big one was assuming the fighting would happen where the German supply system needed to happen. That appears to be the army's decision.
> But the major strategic short-comings that impacted the German military > was made by nonmilitary departments > of the Nazi party. That is the major excuse given for the military failings. Yet for example Hitler ordered the long 50mm gun put into the mark III tank, the army disagreed, the upgrade happened after the T-34 was discovered.
It was the military continually changing the specifications of the weapons it wanted that hurt production.
There is a balance between something now and something better tomorrow.
In more strategic terms the remark of the Luftwaffe Chief of Staff on the attack on the USSR, "At last, a real war". What was the air attack on Britain? The Luftwaffe could go back to its glory days of Poland and France and effectively ignore the problems of actually defeating the RAF over Britain. Things like more fighters per bomber. Note in 1941 the Luftwaffe received more industrial capacity on the assumption the USSR would be defeated in 1941 but there does not seem to have been much effort devoted to turning that effort into a force mix to take on the RAF in 1942.
The SS hurt the rest of the military by taking manpower and then wasting it thanks to inadequate training, at least initially.
So no, to simply move the bad things to Nazis and the good things to the military is not sustainable.
> The crappy balance of payments forever, The rearmament drove the balance of payments problems. As the military consumed domestic and imported production, leaving little for exports.
> the irrational apportioning of funding for different branches of the > military, You need to tell us what period you are referring to. Pre war who exactly can decide the correct mix of army to navy to air force, and then the force mix within the services? Panzer divisions work really well against continental armies, a bigger Luftwaffe and Navy was needed to subdue Britain.
In 1941 production was allocated on the assumption the USSR would be defeated in 1941.
> the decision of not to put the economy on total war production until 1943, This is actually incorrect, the Germans were heavily mobilised earlier, they were just very inefficient for a number of reasons, including the civilian authorities and things like production orders from the military and what manpower to draft and what to leave as civilian. Lots of trained scientists and engineers ended up as radio men, not radar researchers for example.
> the decision to do war on Poland in 1939 when the military maintained they > could not be prepared for big-league war before 1944, Given the balance of payments the potential opponents would be even better, by 1941 the western allied air forces would outnumber the Luftwaffe and would have caught up in quality terms as well.
> the decision to employ atrocity to an extreme degree as policy in the > East. Etc. The army participated in the atrocities, and made use of hostages.
> I would enlarge the scope of strategic culprits in the statement. How > about: "I must admit to a contempt for that popularly accepted but > pernicious myth of Nazi Germany's military excellence in war..." In essence you are doing a fairly standard thing, German good Nazi bad in military terms. If you read Guderian Hitler played a big part in there being a panzer force the size it was pre war.
The German army certainly evolved, it increased training as a result of the actions in Poland, it refined the Panzer ideas as a result of Poland and France, it recast the tank as an anti tank vehicle in response to the gun armour race in the east, and so on. It also seems to have been the most willing of the German services to learn new things, it also had flaws, some of which were not corrected. Same as all organisations.
The army responded to the fighting in France by reducing the average tank strength per panzer division, so more panzer divisions, but at the expense of the need for more support per tank. I have seen claims this was the right thing to do, a better tank to infantry ratio in the division, and a bad thing to do, the cost of the support (things like Panzer Grenadiers having to use trucks) and the weakening of the individual division. So is this good or bad?
My major point is if the German military is to be rated it has to be the entire military and that means the navy and air force as well.
Geoffrey Sinclair Remove the nb for email.
Bay Man - 19 Jun 2009 17:19 GMT > I understand the German military made a number of strategic errors during > campaigns in Russia. It happens. But the major strategic short-comings [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > could not be prepared for big-league war before 1944, the decision to > employ atrocity to an extreme degree as policy in the East. Etc. Germany waged war without enough finished materials, raw materials, a poor agriculture or men, there were few to no reserves, marching everywhere.
They made early spectacular gains, however nothing conclusive. The economies of the British and French empires vastly dwarfed Germany's. Anyone with half a brain in 1939 would not consider waging war on the UK and France. Germany's economy could not wage a war for a long period. The UK & France was militarily larger than Germany - with Germany virtually having no navy in comparison. The Soviet economy was much larger than Germany's as was its military. Against that background to even "consider" waging war on any front was madness.
Germany had a leader who thought short sharp campaigns would win. A massive gamble. It paid off in France and the low countries, beyond their wildest dreams, mainly due to allied incompetence rather than German brilliance. If the tenuous German attacking logistical thread through France was broken it would have failed. An reckless outside gamble paid off.
So Germany after the fall of France is facing the UK and the USSR. Again, the economies of were larger than Germany's - Germany now has to supply grain and fuel to conquered countries. Not only that the RNs blockade is highly effective and Germany is desperately short of raw materials, especially oil and rubber. The UK now has access to US military industry as well as its own.
In this situation it is also madness to even consider attacking the USSR, with its massive military, large economy, large industry and vast land mass. Attacking the USSR means Germany is fighting the UK & the USSR.
Again Germany, inflated by the gain of France, does the same and attacks, without enough men, materials, oil, rubber or ammunition and still marching dragging guns behind horses at the rear. Their tactics are now well known. Again, incompetence allows the Germans to make spectacular gains in the USSR. This time, the massive manpower of the USSR, industry in the east and land mass prevents any quick knock out punch.
It is only a matter of time to defeat, with Germany unable to sustain a long war against the UK and USSR alone as their economies were collectively much larger. After failing to defeat the USSR in one swift move, meaning a protracted war with the USSR, Germany foolishly declares war on the USA. The USA entering the war means certain defeat much quicker.
Adam Tooze in Wages of Destruction, goes into the economic angle in much depth, which probably backs up this author.
The myth of the Germans being a superior war nation was WW2 propaganda to unify and cover much allied embarrassing ineptitude. Propaganda was never put right after and many authors, doing research, have blown the myths away.
David H Thornley - 20 Jun 2009 00:36 GMT > They made early spectacular gains, however nothing conclusive. The took out Poland and France quite readily. That's pretty conclusive.
The
> economies of the British and French empires vastly dwarfed Germany's. Does that count disposable income? Those two empires were largely composed of economically undeveloped areas. While the economies of the colonial possessions were respectable due to the sheer size, the per capita incomes were pretty low.
Germany, on the other hand, didn't have that sort of drag.
> Anyone with half a brain in 1939 would not consider waging war on the UK > and France. Germany's economy could not wage a war for a long period. > The UK & France was militarily larger than Germany - with Germany > virtually having no navy in comparison. Germany didn't need much of a navy. Germany could get raw materials and such from the Soviet Union through trade (and then from conquest, ran the plan). The effect of the naval war was to give Germany a fairly low-cost method of attacking the Allied economy.
The Soviet economy was much
> larger than Germany's as was its military. Would you care to document that? German industry was considerably larger and more impressive.
> So Germany after the fall of France is facing the UK and the USSR. > Again, the economies of were larger than Germany's - Germany now has to > supply grain and fuel to conquered countries. Germany has to what? Germany was a food and fuel importer in this period, and the conquered countries got what Germany felt cost-effective for Germany.
Not only that the RNs
> blockade is highly effective and Germany is desperately short of raw > materials, especially oil and rubber. They made do, for the most part.
> In this situation it is also madness to even consider attacking the > USSR, with its massive military, large economy, large industry and vast > land mass. Attacking the USSR means Germany is fighting the UK & the USSR. Land mass I'll give you. The military was not as large as it seems, comparatively, the Soviet economy and industry not as developed as Germany's.
> Again Germany, inflated by the gain of France, does the same and > attacks, without enough men, materials, oil, rubber or ammunition and > still marching dragging guns behind horses at the rear. Would you like to count the WWII armies that didn't use horses as transport? The 1940 French did, as did the Soviets for the entire war. The British didn't, but they didn't have a large army early on. It took a long time for the Germans to face a large and fully motorized foe (using "motorized" to mean no horses, not that everybody rides).
Now, please list the WWII armies that did believe they had enough men and materiel. It should be an even shorter list. US authorities were openly discussing the gamble of not raising a larger army, the Brits didn't supply enough replacements to allow Montgomery's left flank to make a full offensive at Normandy, and the Soviets were conscripting sixteen-year-olds in 1945.
> It is only a matter of time to defeat, with Germany unable to sustain a > long war against the UK and USSR alone as their economies were > collectively much larger. Not really, particularly after the Axis conquest of so much economically important territory. The big industrial advantage came with the USA.
After failing to defeat the USSR in one swift
> move, meaning a protracted war with the USSR, Germany foolishly declares > war on the USA. The USA entering the war means certain defeat much quicker. War with the US was coming quite certainly, and Hitler's declaration did give him the ability to strike at US coastal shipping while the US was thoroughly unprepared. Although I don't know he planned that, there was some advantage into bringing the US into the war on Hitler's schedule rather than Roosevelt's.
The US was already giving large quantities of materiel to Britain and, to a lesser extent, the Soviet Union, and the USN was already at war with Germany.
> Adam Tooze in Wages of Destruction, goes into the economic angle in much > depth, which probably backs up this author. Tooze wrote a very good book on the German war economy. He was far less accurate on anything that wasn't the German economy.
> The myth of the Germans being a superior war nation was WW2 propaganda > to unify and cover much allied embarrassing ineptitude. Actually, it started in the Eighteenth Century, and was reinforced by the quick German win in the Franco-Prussian War. The Germans also outfought their battlefield opponents in WWI.
There was, indeed, propaganda, but much of it came from Germans eager to present themselves as people of military genius hindered by gross Allied superiority and Hitler. From what I've seen, the puffing up of a defeated enemy didn't play as great a part in that.
Propaganda was
> never put right after and many authors, doing research, have blown the > myths away. Some myths die hard.
 Signature David H. Thornley | If you want my opinion, ask. david@thornley.net | If you don't, flee. http://www.thornley.net/~thornley/david/ | O-
Bay Man - 20 Jun 2009 16:45 GMT >> They made early spectacular gains, however nothing conclusive. > > The took out Poland and France quite readily. > That's pretty conclusive. It was not conclusive and they were still fighting.
>> The economies of the British and French >> empires vastly dwarfed Germany's. > > Does that count disposable income? The whole bottom line. The UK & French dwarfed Germany. To consider war with both was madness.
>> The Soviet economy was much >> larger than Germany's as was its military. > > Would you care to document that? German > industry was considerably > larger and more impressive. Tooze and Keegan mention this.
>> So Germany after the fall of France is facing the UK and the USSR. >> Again, the economies of both were larger than Germany's - [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > period, and the conquered countries got what Germany felt cost-effective > for Germany. Germany suppled grain and fuel to conquered countries - Tooze. The RN blockade prevented US animal feed imports and animals were slaugtered in Denmark and the Low countries.
>> Not only that the RNs >> blockade is highly effective and Germany is desperately short of raw >> materials, especially oil and rubber. > > They made do, for the most part. Missed the point. The wage war effectively, you do not make do with essential supplies.
>> In this situation it is also madness to even consider attacking the >> USSR, with its massive military, large economy, large industry and vast [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > Land mass I'll give you. The military was not as large as it seems, > comparatively, The military was larger and had more men.
> the Soviet economy and industry not as developed as > Germany's. Soviet industry was new and well developed and larger than Germany's.
>> Again Germany, inflated by the gain of France, does the same and >> attacks, without enough men, materials, oil, rubber or ammunition and >> still marching dragging guns behind horses at the rear. > > Would you like to count the WWII armies that didn't use horses as > transport? That is not the point. Germany had a slow rear in a war that is supposed to be a swift quick blow action. They did not have enough rail lines to supply the front troops.
>> It is only a matter of time to defeat, with Germany unable to sustain a >> long war against the UK and USSR alone as their economies were >> collectively much larger. > > Not really, Yes really. The UK and USSR economies were collectively much larger.
> The big industrial advantage came with the USA. Without the USA, The UK & USSR were larger than Germany, with Germany desperately short of everything.
>> Adam Tooze in Wages of Destruction, goes >> into the economic angle in much [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > war economy. He was far less accurate on anything > that wasn't the German economy. He was spot-on, on many points. His assessment of the reasons why Germany went to war was quite revealing. He points out the sheer stupidity and amaturism of Germany at time.
You must stop wandering, with bits about Normandy and others.
John Anderton - 21 Jun 2009 16:07 GMT >>> The Soviet economy was much >>> larger than Germany's as was its military. [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > >Tooze and Keegan mention this. Tooze doesn't mention the Soviet economy being "much larger" :-
UK paperback p455 - "According to the best modern estimates, German per capita GDP was two and a half times that of the Soviet Union in 1940."
( Since the Soviet Union had approximately two and a half times the German population, Tooze is actually saying the two countries had pretty much the same GDP, which is borne out by other sources (e.g http://www.onwar.com/articles/f0302.htm
Note - According to that link the SU had a *smaller* economy than Germany in 1939 ))
The only comparison I can find in Tooze that could be said to relate to "industry" is this :
UK paperback p456 - "In 1939 the German steel association put the Soviet Union well ahead of Great Britain, in third place behind the United States and Germany, with an annual output of 18 million tons of steel compared to Germany's 23.3 million tons."
No mention of how accurate the German steel association's estimate is, though.
Cheers,
John
Bay Man - 22 Jun 2009 14:29 GMT >>>> The Soviet economy was much >>>> larger than Germany's as was its military. [quoted text clipped - 33 lines] > > John Quick look at Keegan, chapter War Production:
- Germany was third behind the USA, then the UK in GDP, in 1939. Germany = UK in capital goods production in 1939. - UK economy grows 60% during WW2. - Hitler says to Guderian, re: USSR, "had I known they had so many tanks as that, I would have thought twice before invading" -
Tooze: - Preface, xxiii: Combined GDP of the UK and France exceeded Germany & Italy by 60%. - Page 431: "the strongest arguments for rushing to conquer the Soviet Union in 1941 were precisely the growing shortage of grain and the need to knock Britain out of the war before it could pose a serious air threat." - page 454: "It was poor because of the incomplete industrial and economic development of Germany".
Interesting: http://www2.warwick.ac.uk/fac/soc/economics/research/workingpapers/publications/ twerp603.pdf
Snippets:
"Soviet exceeded German GDP in 1940"
"The Allies won the war because their economies supported a greater volume of war production and military personnel in larger numbers. This was true of the war as a whole, and it was also true on the eastern front where the Soviet economy, of a similar size to Germany's but less developed and also seriously weakened by invasion, supplied more soldiers and weapons."
"the technological key to Soviet superiority in the output of weapons was mass production. At the outbreak of war Soviet industry as a whole was not larger and not more productive than German industry. The non-industrial resources on which Soviet industry could draw were larger than Germany's in the sense of territory and population, but of considerably lower quality, more far-flung, and less well integrated. Both countries had given considerable thought to industrial mobilisation preparations, but the results were of questionable efficacy. In both countries war production was poorly organised at first and productivity in the military-industrial sector had been falling for several years. The most important difference was that Soviet industry had made real strides towards mass production, while German industry was still locked into an artisan mode of production that placed a premium on quality and assortment rather than quantity. Soviet industry produced fewer models of each type of weapon, and subjected them to less modification, but produced them in far larger quantities. Thus the Soviet Union was able to make considerably more effective use of its limited industrial resources than Germany.
"Before the war Soviet defence industry was in a state of permanent technological reorganisation as new models of aircraft, tanks, and other weapons were introduced and old ones phased out at dizzying rate."
The USSR had access to oil and more natural resources and far more men. Making their ability to produce far greater than Germany, which actually happened.
John Anderton - 22 Jun 2009 16:32 GMT On 22 June, 14:29, "Bay Man" <xyxbayman...@xyxmailinator.xyxcomnospam> wrote:
> "John Anderton" <John1_andertonNOSPAMTHA...@hotmail.co.uk> wrote in message
> > Tooze doesn't mention the Soviet economy being "much larger" :- > [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > > German population, Tooze is actually saying the two countries had > > pretty much the same GDP <snip several quotes. None of which have anything to do with Bay Man's claim that the Soviet economy was much larger than the German economy and that Tooze supports that claim>
> "The Allies won the war because their economies supported a greater volume > of war production and military personnel in larger numbers. This was true of > the war as a whole, and it was also true on the eastern front where the > Soviet economy, of a similar size to Germany's Repeating for emphasis " the Soviet economy, of a similar size to Germany's"
>but less developed and also > seriously weakened by invasion, supplied more soldiers and weapons." > > "the technological key to Soviet superiority in the output of weapons was > mass production. At the outbreak of war Soviet industry as a whole was not > larger and not more productive than German industry. The non-industrial Again, for emphasis "Soviet industry as a whole was not larger and not more productive than German industry"
Thanks for making my point for me. It seems an odd debating style though,
Cheers,
John
Bay Man - 22 Jun 2009 21:23 GMT > On 22 June, 14:29, "Bay Man" <xyxbayman...@xyxmailinator.xyxcomnospam> > wrote: [quoted text clipped - 38 lines] > Thanks for making my point for me. It seems an odd debating style > though, What was clear was that the Soviet economy was about equal, if not bigger, NOT SMALLER. But....to give the USSR economy and industry a boost, with an industry that could make things faster, more resources, fuel, men, grain and a vast land mass. Attacking them was pretty foolish, even in 1941. The bits you think irrelevant backup the foolishness of the Germans decision to attack the USSR...and the UK & France.
- Germany was third behind the USA, then the UK in GDP, in 1939. Germany = UK in capital goods production in 1939. (stupid to make war with the UK)
- UK economy grows 60% during WW2. (again silly to wage war on the UK)
- Hitler says to Guderian, re: USSR, "had I known they had so many tanks as that, I would have thought twice before invading" (stupid to wage war on the USSR, as they had a larger industrial base and an economy at least as large)
Combined GDP of the UK and France exceeded Germany & Italy by 60%. (stupid to wage war on both)
"the strongest arguments for rushing to conquer the Soviet Union in 1941 were precisely the growing shortage of grain and the need to knock Britain out of the war before it could pose a serious air threat." (running out of resource, so desperate, as they foolishly waged war on the UK, who were a big threat)
"It was poor because of the incomplete industrial and economic development of Germany". (The economy and industry of Germany was deficient - silly to wage war)
These points, point to the foolishness of the Germans as they did not have the ability to wage war against its larger neighbours.
David H Thornley - 22 Jun 2009 02:05 GMT > It was not conclusive and they were still fighting. How conclusive do you want? In less than a year, Germany had eliminated one major and one intermediate foe, and was proceeding to loot them.
>>> The economies of the British and French >>> empires vastly dwarfed Germany's. > The whole bottom line. The UK & French dwarfed Germany. To consider war > with both was madness. You need to learn more about economics.
Basically, poor people are of limited use in modern war. Too many of them have to be farmers, and they don't produce all that much of use. Most of the colonial empires were composed of poor people, who needed to be supported by the British and French.
It took a long time for the colonial powers to realize this, but a vast colonial empire was really more of a drag on the economy than an asset. There were exceptions, as some colonies had valuable natural resources, but most of their economies, apart from that, were based on a whole lot of people making subsistence-level livings.
Look at the size of the Indian and Chinese armies, and look at the composition of the Chinese army. Chinese divisions were woefully short on heavy weapons, not normally having artillery.
That is, if anything, better than most African colonies and a whole lot of Asian could manage.
>>> The Soviet economy was much >>> larger than Germany's as was its military. [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > > Tooze and Keegan mention this. Got page cites?
> Germany suppled grain and fuel to conquered countries - Tooze. Got a page cite?
I know Germany supplied fuel to conquered countries, but only to serve German purposes directly. If you want to convince me that they supplied food, you're going to have to find some good evidence.
The RN
> blockade prevented US animal feed imports and animals were slaugtered in > Denmark and the Low countries. And this proves that Germany was feeding Denmark, the Netherlands, and Belgium?
> Missed the point. The wage war effectively, you do not make do with > essential supplies. Except that that's what everybody did during the war.
Read the section on the US Ordnance Department Green Book (the first one) about tank armor. The US did not use face-hardened armor for tanks, partly because the US simply couldn't get enough nickel. The Ordnance Department couldn't even specify an alloy for tank armor, but had to continually come up with the best it could with what they had.
Don't you think the Allies would have put more tungsten-core ammo into the field if they'd had the tungsten? That they had all the rubber they needed (particularly after Japanese advances)? Nobody has everything they need in war, and you look naive if you argue that one side didn't.
> The military was larger and had more men. The Red Army was not all that bigger than the German, and Germany had allies.
Remember, also, that the Red Army drew from various different regions of the Soviet Union. There were the relatively advanced and loyal Russians (the Ukraine and Byelorussia were occupied for much of that part of the war), and a whole lot of more primitive and less loyal peoples. It wasn't a case of the Soviets having an all-Russian army while Germany had to rely on allies; they both had a lot of troops of more or less subject nationalities.
>> the Soviet economy and industry not as developed as >> Germany's. > > Soviet industry was new and well developed and larger than Germany's. Compare their steel production figures.
Steel, particularly at that time, was a really good indicator of total industrial activity.
The Soviets were respectable, but considerably behind the Germans.
>> Would you like to count the WWII armies that didn't use horses as >> transport? > > That is not the point. Germany had a slow rear in a war that is > supposed to be a swift quick blow action. And other powers didn't?
Do you think the Soviets had magic carpets or fleets of modern trucks? Their supplies mostly travelled from railheads by horse-drawn wagon.
They did not have enough rail
> lines to supply the front troops. Take a look at Eisenhower's logistics. Tell me that he had all the shipping, ports, and rail lines to supply his forces. (Hint: you'd be lying.)
> You must stop wandering, with bits about Normandy and others. No, you need to look beyond Tooze.
The fact is that many of the things you say were wrong with the German war effort were common elements with most or all armies.
Nobody ever had the manpower they wanted. Nobody ever had all the materiel they wanted. If anybody had all the supplies they wanted, they were not advancing.
The advance from Normandy to central Germany was conducted by countries that were seriously short on manpower and with shoestring logistics. The Allies had most of the world to draw on for supplies, but still had serious shortages, including shipping.
Every major power but Japan was badly prepared for war, and Japan was only prepared because they'd been spending a few years fighting China. Nobody went into the war with a good mobile warfare doctrine, although the Germans came close. All economies were under a great deal of strain, the US taking the strain best.
To support what you've been saying, you need not only to get a few more facts, but to use them intelligently. There's no point in saying that Germany was unprepared for war, since nobody else was. There's no point in saying the Germans lacked manpower, since everybody else did.
 Signature David H. Thornley | If you want my opinion, ask. david@thornley.net | If you don't, flee. http://www.thornley.net/~thornley/david/ | O-
mtfester@netMAPSONscape.net - 22 Jun 2009 02:49 GMT > It took a long time for the colonial powers to realize this, but a vast > colonial empire was really more of a drag on the economy than an asset. > There were exceptions, as some colonies had valuable natural resources, And even then, it's almost always more cost-efficient to let someone else dig those up, then just buy them.
> > Germany suppled grain and fuel to conquered countries - Tooze.
> Got a page cite? Interesting; he has previously claimed that Germany couldn't feed itself, nor supply it's own fuel, but now they're supplying those they conquored.
Mike
Bay Man - 22 Jun 2009 14:27 GMT > Interesting; he has previously claimed that Germany couldn't feed itself, > nor supply it's own fuel, but now they're supplying those they conquered. Yep, Germany could feed itself and was short of everything. And was having to give some of their food to others as well.
LC - 22 Jun 2009 17:28 GMT > Yep, Germany ... was having > to give some of their food to others as well. That is simply wrong.
Germany never gave away any of its food production.
Germany imported food from its conquests.
The only conquered area that received food was Norway, it didn't receive much and it wasn't German food but food from some other German conquests.
LC
Bay Man - 22 Jun 2009 21:30 GMT >> Yep, Germany ... was having >> to give some of their food to others as well. > > That is simply wrong. > > Germany never gave away any of its food production. Louis, you will have to take that up with Toose. He even states that Poland had to receive grain after conquest.
Stephen Graham - 22 Jun 2009 21:52 GMT >>> Yep, Germany ... was having >>> to give some of their food to others as well. [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > Louis, you will have to take that up with Toose. He even states that > Poland had to receive grain after conquest. "As we have seen, after the occupation of autumn 1939 the most fertile regions of Poland had been annexed to Germany, leaving the General Government as an agricultural deficit territory. In the first year of German occupation, Backe and Governor General Frank had agreed on food imports from the Reich that were sufficient to give food to those Poles working for the Germans." (Tooze, 544) In other words, declare parts of Poland to be German and then ship (less compared to pre-war) food from the newly German areas into the remnant of Poland.
Tooze then goes on to detail the changes in 1942, which resulted in the General Government being a net food exporter, citing figures showing that the General Government provided the majority of German imports of rye, oats and potatoes. (549)
Bay Man - 24 Jun 2009 15:14 GMT >>>> Yep, Germany ... was having >>>> to give some of their food to others as well. [quoted text clipped - 14 lines] > Poland to be German and then ship (less compared to pre-war) food from the > newly German areas into the remnant of Poland. Germany had to give grain fuel to the conquered countries on initial conquest. Grain and fuel they just did not have.
Stephen Graham - 24 Jun 2009 15:59 GMT >> "As we have seen, after the occupation of autumn 1939 the most fertile >> regions of Poland had been annexed to Germany, leaving the General [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > Germany had to give grain fuel to the conquered countries on initial > conquest. Grain and fuel they just did not have. The quote from Tooze is right there.
Perhaps you should go back and reread that chapter?
E.F.Schelby - 24 Jun 2009 19:09 GMT >> Germany had to give grain fuel to the conquered countries on initial >> conquest. Grain and fuel they just did not have. > >The quote from Tooze is right there. > >Perhaps you should go back and reread that chapter? I have not read Tooze yet but agree that one should not rely on only one source. One of the quality studies mentioned here before was John E. Farquharson's "The Western Allies and the Politics of Food, (Berg LTD., 1985).
Topics I have not seen discussed in this group include:
*The harsh winter of 1940/1941 - effect on harvests.
*black markets, for example in France and later in Germany where farmers withheld food during and after the war. Farmers tend to do this when food becomes abnormally valuable.
*Food deficit areas needed supplies. Examples: Serbian grain was shipped to Greece. Bread rations in Belgium and northern France were increased (fear of unrest). Imports from Hungary and Romania failed to be available, so Germany used 70.000 tons of grain from its domestic supplies to help these areas. At home, the regime was afraid of shortages, due to the memory of WW I conditions and the blockade.
*Forced laborers tended to be treated very well by farm wives who often worked 17 hours a day and had no inclination to sit on a high horse. They were left to run operations in the absence of their men.
*Distribution hardships - one example: in the British Zone, and due to the air offensive, only 1000 kilometers of railway tracks were functional by 1945, out of 13,000 kilometers at the start of the war.
All these factors are interrelated, and nothing is as simple and slogan-friendly as saying: the evil empire (TM) robbed all of Europe. Does anyone know if the German military paid for the food it consumed in France? I remember reading this, but can't find the reference.
Regards, ES
LC - 24 Jun 2009 21:03 GMT > *black markets, for example in France and later in Germany where > farmers withheld food during and after the war. Farmers tend to do > this when food becomes abnormally valuable. This topic was touched upon from time to time. Black market doesn't represent additional production, it represents an attempt to distribute existing production outside the government-regulated channels.
Under German occupation, as well as postwar, France was under food rationing. Farmers were supposed to sell their production at a priced fixed by the government. Naturally enough, they tended to sell as little as they could for the official price, and to sell some of their production on the black market at much higher prices. The effect was devastating to the poorer strata of the population concerned, both in occupied France and in postwar Germany for the same reasons.
Now the difference is that German occupiers levelled "occupation fees" on their conquests. Coupled with an artificially high exchange rate for the mark and with the "clearing balances" system that allowed them to run a structural trade deficit, this gave them tremendous purchasing power. As such, they deliberately left black markets prosper because they'd rather pay a premium for the goods (money not being a problem) than have them hidden from requisitions. This is documented in contemporary German reports, by the way.
> *Food deficit areas needed supplies. Examples: Serbian grain > was shipped to Greece. Yes. Please note that this is exactly what I was pointing out to Spiv/ L2007/Bay Man: the Germans sent limited amounts of food to Greece, but that didn't amount to German exports because they took the food from another occupied country.
> Bread rations in Belgium and northern > France were increased (fear of unrest). See above. Bread rations were temporarily increased at times after being reduced to dangerously (from the point of view of public order) low levels. The increase, the result of which was still well-below normal levels, wasn't supported by German consumers but by other Belgian and French ones, whose ration was reduced as a consequence. In other words, the Germans were allocating the production of their conquests, not their own. As I showed in my previous reply to Bay Man, German imports of food grew during the war.
> Imports from Hungary > and Romania failed to be available, so Germany used > 70.000 tons of grain from its domestic supplies to help these > areas. See above. There's a difference between Germany supplying additional grain to one of its conquests on an ad hoc basis and Germany exporting grain. Germany was a net importer of grain throughout the war.
> *Forced laborers tended to be treated very well by farm wives who > often worked 17 hours a day and had no inclination to sit on a > high horse. They were left to run operations in the absence of > their men. The treatment of farm laborers depended upon their host, the same would be true of German POWs who were forced to work in e.g. French farms after the war.
Generally speaking, laborers from France and the Low Countries were treated best, Slavic labor was treated worst of all. I don't think that "tended to be treated very well" is correct as a general statement. Farmers, as a rule, didn't deliberately mistreat their slaves but very good treatment wasn't not the norm either..
> All these factors are interrelated, and nothing is as simple > and slogan-friendly as saying: the evil empire (TM) robbed all of > Europe. It is a documented fact that Germany robbed all of those parts of Europe that it could reach.
There is very little doubt that nazi Germany fit the definition of an evil empire.
That part is non-controversial.
Where things stop being simple is that the Germans received a lot of help from non-Germans in robbing and killing from most of Europe.
> Does anyone know if the German military paid for the food it > consumed in France? It did, but as the food was paid from the occupation fees, which had been fixed at a level higher than wartime French military spending, the ones who were actually paying were the French, not the Germans. The same mechanism was at work in other countries like Belgium, Denmark etc.
Suppose I invade the USA and force the puppet government under my control to pay, say, $100 billion a day in occupation fees, my troops will have a lot of cash with which to pay for whatever they want. Some US businesses will become very rich supplying the invaders, but ultimately the ones paying will be US citizens as they will bear the cost of the extra taxes, inflation or both that the levy will have provoked.
LC
E.F.Schelby - 26 Jun 2009 17:55 GMT >> *black markets, for example in France and later in Germany where >> farmers withheld food during and after the war. Farmers tend to do [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] >distribute existing production outside the government-regulated >channels. That's true, but I doubt that the authorities knew precisely how much was being produced. Growers are quite flexible if it suits them.
>Under German occupation, as well as postwar, France was under food >rationing. Farmers were supposed to sell their production at a priced [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] >devastating to the poorer strata of the population concerned, both in >occupied France and in postwar Germany for the same reasons. I would suggest to replace "poorer" with "urban" population. Paper money wasn't much valued at this point. Black markets like a return to barter, at least to a considerable degree.
>Now the difference is that German occupiers levelled "occupation fees" >on their conquests. Coupled with an artificially high exchange rate [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] >being a problem) than have them hidden from requisitions. This is >documented in contemporary German reports, by the way. Could you be kind enough to name your sources so that I can follow the dictum 'trust but verify'?
>> *Food deficit areas needed supplies. Examples: Serbian grain >> was shipped to Greece. snip
>> Bread rations in Belgium and northern >> France were increased (fear of unrest). [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] >conquests, not their own. As I showed in my previous reply to Bay Man, >German imports of food grew during the war Farquharson disagrees with you. Quote:
August 1943: "When imports from Hungary and Romania proved unobtainable, the Reich itself had to spare 70,000 tons of grain." (p.21).
(snip)
>> *Forced laborers tended to be treated very well by farm wives who >> often worked 17 hours a day and had no inclination to sit on a [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] >would be true of German POWs who were forced to work in e.g. French >farms after the war. This may well be correct. Most people are human, after all. My point was that without these laborers the German women left to operate the farms alone couldn't have managed. They had every incentive to seek cooperation.
>Generally speaking, laborers from France and the Low Countries were >treated best, Slavic labor was treated worst of all. I don't think >that "tended to be treated very well" is correct as a general >statement. Farmers, as a rule, didn't deliberately mistreat their >slaves but very good treatment wasn't not the norm either. Well, it's better not to argue about this. I am not so sure that we can merely follow the conventional wisdom with its tiresome sloganeering. I have read various diaries and witness accounts written at the time. In addition, my family (fatherless at the time) lived under occupation - American, Russian, and British.
>> All these factors are interrelated, and nothing is as simple >> and slogan-friendly as saying: the evil empire (TM) robbed all of >> Europe. > >It is a documented fact that Germany robbed all of those parts of >Europe that it could reach. On the other hand, people in some of the former occupied areas do not make such allegations. Both of my sisters live in Denmark. I had friends among the Danes. We talked about the war. They don't make allegations of robbery.
>There is very little doubt that nazi Germany fit the definition of an >evil empire. > >That part is non-controversial. I think it is controversial to use such language, and if I do it it's meant to be tongue in cheek. I have no use for terms like 'the great Satan' etc. either.
>Where things stop being simple is that the Germans received a lot of >help from non-Germans in robbing and killing from most of Europe. Did you expect sainthood from non-Germans? And do you know, by any chance, Max Frisch's play _Andorra_? It provides some powerful leads about behavior during a 20th century war.
>> Does anyone know if the German military paid for the food it >> consumed in France? [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] >The same mechanism was at work in other countries like Belgium, >Denmark etc. Where do I find details on this?
Regards, ES
LC - 26 Jun 2009 21:14 GMT [black market]
> That's true, but I doubt that the authorities knew precisely how > much was being produced. Growers are quite flexible if it suits > them. The authorities didn't know exactly how much was being produced. They knew black market existed, which told them two things: 1/ that global supply was insufficient (otherwise there would have been no need of a black market), and 2/ that some of the supply was going through non- official channels.
The Vichy French had a large problem with black market, as it removed scarce commodities from the normal exchange system. In other words, rationing wasn't working.
The Germans didn't have as much of a problem with black market, because they had excellent purchasing power so they could afford simply to buy production off the black market. The ones losing out in the deal were those who couldn't afford to pay for those commodities only to be found on the black market. That last point wasn't specific to occupied countries but also applied to postwar Germany.
> I would suggest to replace "poorer" with "urban" population. Paper > money wasn't much valued at this point. Black markets like a return > to barter, at least to a considerable degree. You may be confusing the situation with that of Germany in 1923. It wasn't a question of paper money vs barter, it was a matter of amounts. On the black market, commodities were *much* more expensive so you either had the right commodity to barter for what you wanted (as you describe it), or you needed a lot of money. A handful of people, and German occupiers in general, had the latter and did all right.
> >Now the difference is that German occupiers levelled "occupation fees" > >on their conquests. Coupled with an artificially high exchange rate [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > Could you be kind enough to name your sources so that I can follow > the dictum 'trust but verify'? The German source that I alluded to above: Forschungsstelle fuer Wehrwirtschaft, "Finanziellen Leistungen", 1944. That and other sets of contemporary statistics drawn by the German administration form the basis of most scholarly works on the subject.
See also:
Karl Brandt: Management of Agriculture and Food in the German-Occupied and other Areas of Fortress Europe: A Study in Military Government, Stanford UP 1953
John Gillingham, "How Belgium Survived: The Food Supply Problems of an Occupied Nation", in Agriculture and Food Supply in the Second World War, by Martin and Milward (ed), Ostfildern: Scripta Murcaturae Verlag, 1985
Alan Milward, "The German Economy at War", London 1965. see also his "The New Order and the French Economy" (Oxford 1970) and "War, Economy and Society, 1939-45"
There's also a useful chapter in Liberman's "Does Conquest Pay?" Princeton UP 1996
> Farquharson disagrees with you. Quote: > > August 1943: "When imports from Hungary and Romania proved > unobtainable, the Reich itself had to spare 70,000 tons of > grain." (p.21). That the grain came from "Reich" reserves doesn't mean that it had been produced in Germany, nor that Germany didn't extract additional imports to compensate.
See the figures I provided for German imports of foodstuffs upthread. It is very clear that Germany imported more and more foodstuffs - including grain - as the war went on.
> >It is a documented fact that Germany robbed all of those parts of > >Europe that it could reach. [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > friends among the Danes. We talked about the war. They don't make > allegations of robbery. I have numerous German friends, fortunately there's no connection between individual relationships and their countries' respective WWII records!
As I described, German soldiers didn't have to actually steal. Allegations of outright robbery were therefore rare, and usually prosecuted by German military authorities.
The Germans didn't have to rob, what they did was levy occupation fees and use these to pay for whatever they wanted. So Germany, as a country, stripped occupied Europe bare of resources, whereas the Germans, as individuals, paid.
> >Where things stop being simple is that the Germans received a lot of > >help from non-Germans in robbing and killing from most of Europe. > > Did you expect sainthood from non-Germans? And do you know, by any > chance, Max Frisch's play _Andorra_? It provides some powerful leads > about behavior during a 20th century war. No I didn't, yes I do, yes that can be said.
> >> Does anyone know if the German military paid for the food it > >> consumed in France? [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > > Where do I find details on this? See sources above.
>From Liberman, p.41: "Tribute was collected in three forms: occupation costs, clearing deficits, and forced bond-sales. German occupation authorities demanded regular payments of 'occupation costs' ('matricular contributions' in the case of the Czech Protectorate) from each country. These sums were much greater than the actual costs of the occupation armies, and Germany used the surplus to buy goods and services for its war effort. Exports to Germany were also financed with borrowed funds. Indigenous administrations had to pay their own exporters while the amounts were chalked up as 'clearing deficits' in Berlin, on the unlikely presumption of postwar repayment [actually, imports of e.g. German coals could be paid for by these clearing credits, though as the author states the balance invariably was in Germany's favor - LC]. German agencies also spent Reichsmarks in the Czech Protectorate and the Netherlands, which were recovered by forced sale of German treasury bonds. The Czech and Dutch regimes had to compensate holders of Reichsmarks with domestic currency and hand over the marks to Germany in return for bonds that had as little real value as the clearing accounts. The indigenous administrations of every occupied country collaborated fully with German financial depredations."
To March 1944, the Germans had levied from France, the Low Countries, Denmark, Norway and Bohemia-Moravia, a total of 69.5 billion marks, of which 49.8 in ocupation fees and 19.7 in clearing balances.
Best regards,
LC
Michele - 25 Jun 2009 16:39 GMT > I have not read Tooze yet but agree that one should not rely > on only one source. One of the quality studies mentioned here before > was John E. Farquharson's "The Western Allies and the Politics of > Food, (Berg LTD., 1985). Mentioned by you, you forget to remind us. And while we're at it, let's remember the subtitle, too: "Agrarian Management in Postwar Germany".
E.F.Schelby - 26 Jun 2009 17:56 GMT >> One of the quality studies mentioned here before >> was John E. Farquharson's "The Western Allies and the Politics of >> Food, (Berg LTD., 1985). > >Mentioned by you, you forget to remind us. And while we're at it, let's >remember the subtitle, too: "Agrarian Management in Postwar Germany". Do you now use the royal "we"? Yes, mentioned by me - but that doesn't have to be advertised: I did this, and I did that.
The subtitle is no secret either -- but if you read the book you would know that it has a good foreword and an information-rich first chapter titled: "The Agrarian Background to Allied Occupation and Wartime Food Supply in Germany."
Regards, ES
Michele - 26 Jun 2009 21:00 GMT >>> One of the quality studies mentioned here before >>> was John E. Farquharson's "The Western Allies and the Politics of [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > > Do you now use the royal "we"? No. I meant the users of the newsgroup, and frankly I thought that would be obvious. I'm always quite precise in this kind of things. I would never say "we think", meaning the users of the newgroup, because I wouldn't assume I could represent them all. But in this case, "us" has roughly the same meaning of your "here". It's fine with me if you wish me to repace the above with "you forget to mention here".
Yes, mentioned by me - but that
> doesn't have to be advertised: I did this, and I did that. If that was just a choice of style, nothing of consequence, then I'm still entitled to criticize it - considering that you took objection to my referring to the newsgroup users as "us". If it was a casual choice of words.
> The subtitle is no secret either No, in fact, one has just to look it up. Indeed the subtitle was already reported to this newsgroup the first time you quoted the title, because somebody dug up the references and mentioned the fact that the book deals with post-war economic history. And that somebody wasn't you. I'll refrain from saying who that was, considering that you prefer such things not to be advertised.
Now more to the point. I suppose the detail of the one-time shipment of 70,000 tons of German grain to Belgium and Northern France comes from this source. If so, I'd like to ask you if the author uses the very verb you used in your post, i.e. that the Germans "helped" the areas they were occupying. Does he? I'd also like to point out, while we're at it, that by the time the Belgians and French in the North needed grain, the grain shipped from Germany wasn't necessarily "German". By that time, Germany had already annexed Polish territories, and was plundering the General Governatorate. It's difficult to rule out the possibility that part of that grain came from Germany's early robberies.
Bay Man - 24 Jun 2009 21:16 GMT >>> "As we have seen, after the occupation of autumn 1939 the most fertile >>> regions of Poland had been annexed to Germany, leaving the General [quoted text clipped - 11 lines] > > Perhaps you should go back and reread that chapter? I will.
Bay Man - 25 Jun 2009 16:53 GMT >>>> Yep, Germany ... was having >>>> to give some of their food to others as well. [quoted text clipped - 14 lines] > Poland to be German and then ship (less compared to pre-war) food from the > newly German areas into the remnant of Poland. Germany had millions of people used as imported forced labour that had to be fed - in Germany. That skews figures a bit.
Stephen Graham - 25 Jun 2009 18:13 GMT > Germany had millions of people used as imported forced labour that had > to be fed - in Germany. That skews figures a bit. As Tooze points out himself, rations for foreign workers were less than that for the average German, often substantially less.
You might also read the discussion of this in Mazower's _Hitler's Empire: How the Nazis Ruled Europe_.
Bay Man - 22 Jun 2009 14:27 GMT >> It was not conclusive and they were still fighting. >> > How conclusive do you want? They never one, who conclusive is that!
>>>> The economies of the British and French >>>> empires vastly dwarfed Germany's.
>> The whole bottom line. The UK & French dwarfed Germany. To consider war >> with both was madness. >> > You need to learn more about economics. You need to understand basic English, What didn't you understand about this.. "The UK & French dwarfed Germany."
>> Germany suppled grain and fuel to conquered countries - Tooze. > > Got a page cite? It is there and maybe on this group so Google.
>> The RN blockade prevented US animal feed imports >> and animals were slaugtered in >> Denmark and the Low countries.
> And this proves that Germany was feeding Denmark, the Netherlands, and > Belgium? It proved food would be less as the war progressed.
>> Missed the point. The wage war effectively, you do not make do with >> essential supplies. > > Except that that's what everybody did during the war. Germany never. It was short of everything and planned to wage war. A dumb thing to do.
>> The military was larger and had more men. > > The Red Army was not all that bigger than the > German, It dwarfed the Germans Army and the reserves were vastly larger. Germany had no reserves.
>> That is not the point. Germany had a slow rear [horses] >> in a war that is >> supposed to be a swift quick blow action. > > And other powers didn't? Other powers were not planning to wage wars and thinking they could win by swift actions.
>> They did not have enough rail >> lines to supply the front troops. > > Take a look at Eisenhower's logistics. Eisenhower was not invading the USSR.
You must stop wandering.
LC - 22 Jun 2009 17:33 GMT > You need to understand basic English, What didn't you understand about > this.. > "The UK & French dwarfed Germany." Bad grammar, for starters.
The United Kingdom along with the French what, dwarfed Germany, in what respect?
> >> Germany suppled grain and fuel to conquered countries - Tooze. > > > Got a page cite? > > It is there and maybe on this group so Google. Tooze doesn't claim that Germany supplied grain to conquered countries for the simple reason that Tooze, unlike some people here, has a good idea of what he's writing about and Germany did no such thing.
> It dwarfed the Germans Army and the reserves were vastly larger. Germany had > no reserves. It must have, how otherwise do you explain that the peak Wehrmacht strength was reached in 1943, two years after the invasion of the Soviet Union?
> Other powers were not planning to wage wars and thinking they could win by > swift actions. Italy was.
Britain and France were hoping that the German economy would collapse in 1939-40.
LC
LC - 22 Jun 2009 17:25 GMT > I know Germany supplied fuel to conquered countries, but only to serve > German purposes directly. Indeed.
Further note that "Germany supplied fuel" wouldn't usually amount to the Germans actually exporting anything, as opposed to letting the Italians collect the amounts of Rumanian oil that they had negotiated (and paid for), letting the Vichy French have a few thousand tons of fuel from captured French and now "German" stocks, etc.
And of course, the only country besides Germany that was a net importer of food was Norway, the amounts were very small, and the food didn't come from Germany in the first place.
LC
Clo-Clo - 20 Jun 2009 05:08 GMT "Bay Man" wrote .
> The economies of the British and French empires vastly dwarfed Germany's. > Anyone with half a brain in 1939 would not consider waging war on the UK > and France. Germany's economy could not wage a war for a long period. > The UK & France was militarily larger than Germany - with Germany > virtually having no navy in comparison. What do you mean by empire? The mother country plus its colonies?
The French colonies except for Indochina and to a small extent North Africa had no economical value whatsoever.
Obsessed nonetheless by their colonial empire the French wasted lots of resources on a navy built for the protection of their colonies, resources they should have used on their air force for example.
The french navy turned out to be essentially useless during WWII, Mers el Kebir 1940, Toulon 1942, in fact worse than useless, a liability.
Such as it was the german navy was probably far more useful to Germany than the french navy to France..
By relieving Germany of its colonies in 1919 the Allies did a great favor to Germany although the Germans perceived this otherwise.
OK, this is not directly related to the main subject of this thread, just a little aside. :-)
Bay Man - 20 Jun 2009 16:45 GMT > "Bay Man" wrote . >> [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > > What do you mean by empire? The mother country plus its colonies? Yes.
> The French colonies except for Indochina and to a small extent North > Africa > had no economical value whatsoever. It doens't matter, the UK and French iogether dwarfed the German economy. That was the bottom line.
> The French navy turned out to be essentially useless during WWII If it was handed over to the allies it woudl not have been useless.
> OK, this is not directly related to the main subject of this thread, just > a > little aside. :-) yep.
Clo-Clo - 20 Jun 2009 16:50 GMT > So Germany after the fall of France is facing the UK and the USSR. Again, > the economies of were larger than Germany's - Germany now has to supply > grain and fuel to conquered countries. The French particularly would have been delighted to receive fuel and grain from Germany.
What a deal! Grain for their "baguettes" and the fuel to bake them just right.
Actually the opposite was true, Germany plundered France of its foodstuff and coal leaving just enough to prevent true hunger (and unrest).
OK I assume the above statement is a slip of the pen as I do not think that Nazi Germany in general was particularly concerned about the nutritional conditions prevailing in their conquered lands and keeping them warm in the wintertime.
While the Nazis were not able to do as much as they wished to protect their population from allied bombers they certainly kept it reasonably well fed and remarkably healthy until the very end much to the surprise of the allied troops, particularly the Russians (*), and guess where much of this foodstuff was produced?
(*) for whom as we all know plump frauleins proved irresistible.
Bay Man - 21 Jun 2009 05:19 GMT >> So Germany after the fall of France is facing the UK and the USSR. >> Again, [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > grain > from Germany. They received at least coal from Germany.
> What a deal! Grain for their "baguettes" and the fuel to bake them just > right. You clearly do not know.
> Actually the opposite was true, Germany plundered France of its foodstuff > and coal leaving just enough to prevent true hunger (and unrest). cite please.
> While the Nazis were not able to do as much as they wished to protect > their [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > troops, particularly the Russians (*), and guess where much of this > foodstuff was produced? Read Adam Tooze.
LC - 21 Jun 2009 14:48 GMT > They received at least coal from Germany. They received far less coal than they needed, or than they had received under a previous regime of wartime restrictions (1939-40).
The only sectors where German coal deliveries were more or less consistent were iron ore mines (production of which went to Germany) and railways (ditto for much of the traffic)
> > What a deal! Grain for their "baguettes" and the fuel to bake them just > > right. > > You clearly do not know. He is certainly right that Germany took from, rather than supply to, foodstuffs in general and grain in particular, France.
> > Actually the opposite was true, Germany plundered France of its foodstuff > > and coal leaving just enough to prevent true hunger (and unrest). > > cite please. The food situation has been abundantly discussed in sourced posts in this group before. This one has some elements:
http://groups.google.com/group/soc.history.war.world-war-ii/msg/cd8ccb5abf105da8 ?hl=en
> Read Adam Tooze. One word to Clo-clo: Tooze wrote a good book, but don't go imagining his mention by Bay Man is a considered reply.
LC
Bay Man - 22 Jun 2009 04:24 GMT >> They received at least coal from Germany. > > They received far less coal than they needed, They received coal Germany could not afford to give.
> He is certainly right that Germany took from, > rather than supply to, foodstuffs in general and > grain in particular, France. Not when they were ready to attack.
> One word to Clo-clo: Tooze wrote a good > book, but don't go imagining > his mention by Bay Man is a considered reply. I only give considered replies - pretty well to the point, rather than off topic as is the norm. Tooze backs up what I write at time. Tooze has upset the apple cart of WW2 history.
David H Thornley - 22 Jun 2009 13:26 GMT > They received coal Germany could not afford to give. Germany had plenty of coal.
> I only give considered replies - pretty well to the point, rather than > off topic as is the norm.
>From my point of view, you focus intently at one little detail, and make far too much of it. What you consider "off topic" is what I consider "context".
Remember that war is a competition. One side wins it by outdoing the other in various ways.
This means that there is no absolute standard of what one side has to do in order to win. It depends entirely on the other side. By laser-like focus on the German war effort, you see all the deficiencies from some ideal standard, and think that is why they lost. In reality, they lost because the Allies did better, not because the Allies were perfect.
Tooze backs up what I write at time. Tooze
> has upset the apple cart of WW2 history. At times, what you write is in Tooze, yes. There's places where I don't think Tooze says what you claim he does.
Moreover, Tooze didn't upset any applecarts, not among people who read fairly widely about WWII anyway. He wrote a very good book on the German economy before and during the war. His accuracy on other topics is iffy, but that's fairly common among such histories.
If you went in with ideas of WWII from the sort of books I had back in the early 1960s, aimed more or less at my age range, then Tooze would indeed be a revelation. Somebody like that would be in serious danger of overemphasizing Tooze and treating him as gospel (it took me a long time to realize that certain books weren't nearly as accurate as I'd thought). Moreover, somebody might not realize that there are other books out there, including official histories, that discussed in detail the deficiencies of other war efforts.
 Signature David H. Thornley | If you want my opinion, ask. david@thornley.net | If you don't, flee. http://www.thornley.net/~thornley/david/ | O-
Bay Man - 22 Jun 2009 16:26 GMT >> They received coal Germany could not afford to give. >> > Germany had plenty of coal. Germany did have to supply the conquered countries with coal, feeds, etc. These occupied countries were a burden not a bonus. Denmark was killing all animals in late 1940 as they had no American animal feeds for them. Germany came in and supplied to prevent the animals being killed. Grain they could not afford to give, as Germany was running out in 1941. Germany even had to supply grain to Poland after conquest.
> Remember that war is a competition. One side wins it by outdoing > the other in various ways. The topic was Germany's ability to wage war. They could not, as their economy was not good enough, industry was slow in production (USSR out-made them before and during WW2), and they did not have enough men. That is the basics. Then there is stupidity, like:
- Underestimating the USSR. Hitler says to Guderian, re: USSR, "had I known they had so many tanks as that, I would have thought twice before invading". - Attacking France & the UK on a wild gamble (it paid off only because of allied stupidity. They were more stupid than the Germans.)
> Moreover, Tooze didn't upset any applecarts, He does. His clear proof that the rise of the USA prompted Germany into WW2 ruffled many. The reason why Germany attacked the USSR was that they needed the natural resources, inc grain & oil, in preparation of the air war with the UK - in which the USA was build 50,000 planes per year and many will be in the hands of the UK, besides its own production. Germany could never match that level of air power and the aim was to fight the UK before USA production came on line in mid-to end 1942. The UK was Hitler's prime pre-occupation.
I advise you, and others, to read Tooze properly and get his points. It is clear many have not. The book is bit clunky being an academic piece of work, rather than popularist.
Many post war historians were of concluding Germany should not have lost the war. Toose, does not go along with this at all and concludes Germany had no chance of winning at any time. At each stage all was against them, even though they attacked in wild gambles and won against all odds in some cases, still does not detract from the point they were fools to engage in the first place.
LC - 22 Jun 2009 17:58 GMT > Germany did have to supply the conquered countries with coal, feeds, etc. Germany did supply conquered countries with coal, of which it had plenty, for the purpose of restoring production e.g. of French & Belgian iron ore mines and steel plants.
Germany didn't supply conquered countries with feeds from its own resources but from other conquests'.
> These occupied countries were a burden not a bonus. Nonsense, they amounted to roughly an extra 30% over the Reich economy, and that doesn't count indirect transfers like the fact that captured stockpiles allowed the German economy to keep going.
> Denmark was killing all > animals in late 1940 as they had no American animal feeds for them. ...and Germany was getting the meat. Total German meat imports were 768,000 tons from Denmark, 758,000 tons from France and 731,000 tons from the Soviet Union.
Germans eating Danish steak doesn't amount to Germany exporting food to Denmark, you know.
> Germany > came in and supplied to prevent the animals being killed. Grain they could > not afford to give, as Germany was running out in 1941. Prewar, Germany was importing 13.2% of its total grain consumption. During the fiscal year 1940/1941, Germany imported... guess what... 13.2% of its total grain consumption. So the Germans weren't feeding anyone, they were being fed by their conquests. By FY 1942/43, German grain imports were up to 21.7% of total supply.
The German food situation was indeed becoming critical in 1941, not because Germany itself was going to run out of food but because Europe would. The German solution was to find another area to plunder so as to share the load of the German locust-like behavior.
> Germany even had to > supply grain to Poland after conquest. That is not only false, it is insulting to the Poles who were starved out. Tooze documents it, BTW, I'm surprised that you forgot about it.
The Polish General Government supplied 1.9 million tons of grain equivalent to Germany during the war, despite being a very poor area. And yes, that was achieved at the cost of very severe hardship to the Poles, whom Germany most definitely did *not* bother to feed.
> I advise you, and others, to read Tooze properly and get his points. It is > clear many have not. I agree, here, as was demonstrated when I quoted the book to show it didn't make the points you claimed it did.
LC
Bay Man - 23 Jun 2009 05:02 GMT >> Germany did have to supply the conquered countries with coal, feeds, etc. > [quoted text clipped - 18 lines] > 768,000 tons from Denmark, 758,000 tons from France and 731,000 tons > from the Soviet Union. Because Germany supplied grain to feed the animals, otherwise a mass slaughter. Meat in abundance for a year and then no more.
>> Germany >> came in and supplied to prevent the animals being killed. Grain they [quoted text clipped - 11 lines] > would. The German solution was to find another area to plunder so as > to share the load of the German locust-like behavior. As Germany was ruling the conquered countries it was their responsibility to feed them. As you say, the food was running out. So sending food to Germany was like shuffling deckchairs on the Titanic.
>> Germany even had to >> supply grain to Poland after conquest. > > That is not only false, it is insulting to the Poles who were starved > out. Tooze documents it, BTW, I'm surprised that you forgot about it. Take it up with Tooze, He says yes, you say no.
> The Polish General Government supplied 1.9 million tons of grain > equivalent to Germany during the war, despite being a very poor area. > And yes, that was achieved at the cost of very severe hardship to the > Poles, whom Germany most definitely did *not* bother to feed. Yep. The idea was to stave them to death, along with Russians, just like the Americans did to the Indians.
>> I advise you, and others, to read Tooze properly and get his points. It >> is >> clear many have not. > > I agree, here, as was demonstrated when I quoted the book to show it > didn't make the points you claimed it did. Again, you didn't get it right.
LC - 23 Jun 2009 19:44 GMT > Because Germany supplied grain to feed the animals, otherwise a mass > slaughter. Meat in abundance for a year and then no more. German imports of meat lasted throughout the war, or at least their occupation of conquered territories.
Additionally, your wording is misleading. When Germany supplied grain to feed the animals, it wasn't German grain. The Germans were in charge of apportioning everything, so "they" supplied, but it took nothing away from their own resources. Like when Romania received tanks "from Germany", despite the tanks being captured French and Soviet vehicles.
> As Germany was ruling the conquered countries it was their responsibility > to feed them. You may find that the Germans felt no compulsion to feed their conquests adequately. Tooze documents it rather well, otherwise there are plenty of posts to that effect in the group archives.
> As you say, the food was running out. So sending food to > Germany was like shuffling deckchairs on the Titanic. But the deckchairs were all shuffling Germany's way, the country wasn't exporting food to anyone.
Your claim to that effect was simply false.
> >> Germany even had to > >> supply grain to Poland after conquest. [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > > Take it up with Tooze, He says yes, you say no. Stephen fortunately saved me the trouble, Tooze's actual claim wasn't what you reported it to be.
LC
David H Thornley - 23 Jun 2009 04:14 GMT > The topic was Germany's ability to wage war. They could not, as their > economy was not good enough, You know, I think quite a few people would disagree that the Germans couldn't wage war in WWII. My father, for example.
industry was slow in production (USSR
> out-made them before and during WW2), and they did not have enough men. To reiterate, nobody had enough men. Nobody.
The Soviets were drafting sixteen-year-olds in 1945.
The British couldn't supply enough men for Montgomery's Brits to make serious attacks in Normandy.
The US had high-level discussions about the Ninety-Division Gamble.
Nobody had enough stuff, either. Or enough logistics.
>> Moreover, Tooze didn't upset any applecarts, > > He does. His clear proof that the rise of the USA prompted Germany into > WW2 ruffled many. Please cite such a clear proof.
Having read the book fairly carefully, I'm pretty sure that this proof exists only in your own mind.
The reason why Germany attacked the USSR was that
> they needed the natural resources, inc grain & oil, in preparation of > the air war with the UK - in which the USA was build 50,000 planes per > year and many will be in the hands of the UK, besides its own > production. This isn't quite correct, since Germany was getting plenty of Soviet resources before the declaration of war.
Insofar as it is accurate, it isn't controversial. Lots of previous historians have written about this, and they said much the same that Tooze did.
> I advise you, and others, to read Tooze properly and get his points. It > is clear many have not. The book is bit clunky being an academic piece > of work, rather than popularist. Except that a lot of us have read Tooze, and a lot of us are perfectly comfortable reading academic histories. The first thing I do when I glance at a history book at Barnes & Noble is check the thickness of the references and bibliography.
Since lots of us have read Tooze, and get certain conclusions that more or less agree with each other, and our conclusions disagree with yours, it seems likely that you are mistaken. Not certain, of course, but likely.
I would suggest that you provide page, or at least chapter, cites for some of your claims. It would be even better if they actually supported what you were saying.
> Many post war historians were of concluding Germany should not have lost > the war. Really? Who would some of those be?
I'm serious about that. There's been a lot of what-if speculation, and examination of possibilities, but I haven't found any serious historian in the past forty years or so who thinks Germany should have won the war.
The only group I can think of were a batch of self-serving generals who basically colluded on a myth and took advantage of the fact that the records were in disarray.
Once more, I suggest you read more widely. No one book will give you an adequate knowledge of any topic as big as WWII.
 Signature David H. Thornley | If you want my opinion, ask. david@thornley.net | If you don't, flee. http://www.thornley.net/~thornley/david/ | O-
Bay Man - 23 Jun 2009 15:22 GMT >> The topic was Germany's ability to wage war. They could not, as their >> economy was not good enough, > > You know, I think quite a few people would disagree that the Germans > couldn't wage war in WWII. My father, for example. They couldn't. Their economy was less than their neighbours, with major shortages of raw material, food , fuel, etc. All this has been explained.
>> The reason why Germany attacked the >> USSR was that they needed the natural [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > > This isn't quite correct, It is 100% correct.
> Since lots of us have read Tooze, and get certain conclusions that more > or less agree with each other, and our conclusions disagree with yours, > it seems likely that you are mistaken. Not certain, of course, but > likely. A few of us concluded the same.
> I would suggest that you provide page, or at least chapter, cites for > some of your claims. It would be even better if they actually > supported what you were saying. I am not going to spend hours trawling for your benefit. A Google on this group will help you.
>> Many post war historians were of concluding >> Germany should not have lost >> the war. > > Really? Who would some of those be? Tooze mentions one. You have read the book.
> Once more, I suggest you read more widely. I find that amazing.
mtfester@netMAPSONscape.net - 24 Jun 2009 02:41 GMT > > You know, I think quite a few people would disagree that the Germans > > couldn't wage war in WWII.
> They couldn't. So, there was no war, and it didn't last more than 6 years and result in the deaths of 10s of millions?
Or are you confusing the words "wage" and "win"?
Mike
Bay Man - 24 Jun 2009 15:14 GMT >> > You know, I think quite a few people would disagree that the Germans >> > couldn't wage war in WWII. [quoted text clipped - 5 lines] > > Or are you confusing the words "wage" and "win"? No, you are.
mtfester@netMAPSONscape.net - 25 Jun 2009 00:41 GMT > >> > You know, I think quite a few people would disagree that the Germans > >> > couldn't wage war in WWII.
> >> They couldn't.
> > So, there was no war, and it didn't last more than 6 years and result > > in the deaths of 10s of millions? > > > > Or are you confusing the words "wage" and "win"?
> No, you are. Gosh, I hardly know if I can recover from this devastating riposte. But I'll try.
http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/wage[2]
wage - transitive verb : to engage in or carry on <wage war> <wage a campaign>
Now, it is my contention that the Germans did, in fact, "wage" war, hence the 10s of millions of dead, many more wounded, devastated cities, conquored nations, etc.
And since they DID, then obviously, they COULD, in fact, wage war. That's obvious.
So, how can you contend that the Germans couldn't do something they obviously did?
What does "Toose" say about this?
Please, in your response, address the above mentioned dead, wounded, conquored, etc.
Thank you.
Mike
Bay Man - 25 Jun 2009 04:49 GMT >> >> > You know, I think quite a few people would disagree that the Germans >> >> > couldn't wage war in WWII. [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > >> No, you are.
> Now, it is my contention that the Germans > did, in fact, "wage" war, They did try, but lost. Why? Because they could not wage war and sustain the war. Just tread my posts it is easier that way. All is there.
mtfester@netMAPSONscape.net - 25 Jun 2009 05:09 GMT > >> >> > You know, I think quite a few people would disagree that the Germans > >> >> > couldn't wage war in WWII. [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > > > >> No, you are.
> > Now, it is my contention that the Germans > > did, in fact, "wage" war,
> They did try, but lost. Why? Because they could not wage war and sustain They could wage war, and did sustain it for well over 5 years.
> the war.
> Just tread my posts it is easier that way. We read your posts; they are nonsense, in that they are composed of such misstatements as "Germany could not wage war".
They could and did wage war. It's in all the history books (including, I suspect, Tooze.)
Mike
Bay Man - 25 Jun 2009 16:33 GMT >> >> >> > You know, I think quite a few people would disagree that the >> >> >> > Germans [quoted text clipped - 17 lines] > > They could wage war, and did sustain it for well over 5 years. They could not, and have at least 50% chance of winning in 1939/40 and 1941 when they attacked France and the USSR. Their chances of winning both was well less than 50%. Economies, industry, size of military. etc was all against them. Again...They took reckless gambles and they paid off in France beyond their widest dreams. The gambles never paid off against the USSR.
<snip>
mtfester@netMAPSONscape.net - 26 Jun 2009 05:13 GMT > <mtfester@netMAPSONscape.net> wrote in message
> >> >> > So, there was no war, and it didn't last more than 6 years and > >> >> > result [quoted text clipped - 11 lines] > > > > They could wage war, and did sustain it for well over 5 years.
> They could not, Could, and did, as history bears out.
Really, have you even HEARD of WWII?
> and have at least 50% chance of winning in 1939/40 and 1941 > when they attacked France and the USSR. They blew through France in 40 days, and Stalin offered the Germans a settle- ment which included the Ukraine. Hitler simply wanted more.
You are simply wrong.
And, again, learn the difference between "wage" and "win". Oh, and I'm still waiting for a list of historians who claim the Germans SHOULD have won WWII. I can't find a single mention of them in Tooze.
Mike
Bay Man - 26 Jun 2009 15:20 GMT >> <mtfester@netMAPSONscape.net> wrote in message > [quoted text clipped - 17 lines] > > Could, and did, as history bears out. Wage war with a good chance of winning. That may make matters clearer for you - something tell me it will not. An dopes can attack another country with little chance of winning - that is not having the capability to sustained wage war with more than 50% chance of winning. The Germans won sweet nothing, in fact they were heavily defeated. Do not carp on about France. The Germans were facing the UK & France, so they did not defeat the UK & France - one part of the partnership was still fighting. The UK was still fighting and amassing a massive air force with US assistance.
Tooze page 459: "One of the earliest war game to test the Barbarossa plan concluded that unless the destruction of the Red Army and the capture of Moscow could be done in a matter of months, Germany would face a long drawn out war beyond the capacity of the German armed forces to wage".
Even the Germans knew they could not wage sustained war.
Tooze page 460: "If the shock of the initial assault [Barbarossa] did not destroy the USSR, it was already evident in February 1941 that the Third Reich would find itself facing a strategic disaster".
That sounds like they could wage sustained war to me.
At the timepoint were the economies of the allies were at a point they could put maximum pressure on the Germans, they surrendered in around 10 months, effectively far less than that as at the end it was more mopping up operations. Effectively they were defeated when the Allies crossed the Rhine, as they had a cat-in-hells chance of winning.
> Stalin offered the Germans a settle- > ment which included the Ukraine. Cite please! Or are you making this up again?
mtfester@netMAPSONscape.net - 26 Jun 2009 21:00 GMT > >> >> >> > Or are you confusing the words "wage" and "win"? > >> >> > [quoted text clipped - 11 lines] > > > > Could, and did, as history bears out.
> Wage war with a good chance of winning. That may make matters clearer for > you - something tell me it will not. I have always been clear on the difference between "wage" and "win"; it is you who has insisted that Germany could not "wage war", unqualified. So, we see you are successfully corrected in one aspect.
> sweet nothing, in fact they were heavily defeated. Do not carp on about > France. The Germans were facing the UK & France, so they did not defeat the > UK & France - one part of the partnership was still fighting. The UK was And yet France was out of the war.
Again, you are wrong.
> Tooze page 459: > "One of the earliest war game to test the Barbarossa plan concluded that > unless the destruction of the Red Army and the capture of Moscow could be > done in a matter of months, Germany would face a long drawn out war beyond > the capacity of the German armed forces to wage".
> Even the Germans knew they could not wage sustained war. And yet Stalin offered a truce.
> > Stalin offered the Germans a settle- > > ment which included the Ukraine.
> Cite please! Or are you making this up again? Well, I suppose I should just tell you to "Google it; it's all there". Others will provide more citations, I suppose, but there's a BBC documentary which occassionally runs on the History Channel, _War of the Century_.
There are also threads all over the net (see http://www.armchairgeneral.com/forums/showthread.php?t=78597 for example)
and others have noted this as well.
Mike
Bay Man - 27 Jun 2009 14:51 GMT >> > Stalin offered the Germans a settle- >> > ment which included the Ukraine. [quoted text clipped - 9 lines] > There are also threads all over the net (see > http://www.armchairgeneral.com/forums/showthread.php?t=78597 for example) Some rambling kids web site forum. Stalin DID NOT offer the Ukraine to prevent a German attack. From Dec 1941 the USSR knew the Germans could not win and they could. They could have finished off the Germans if they did not counter, after Moscow, on a broad front and concentrated the counter-attack.
mtfester@netMAPSONscape.net - 27 Jun 2009 16:48 GMT > >> > Stalin offered the Germans a settle- > >> > ment which included the Ukraine. [quoted text clipped - 9 lines] > > There are also threads all over the net (see > > http://www.armchairgeneral.com/forums/showthread.php?t=78597 for example)
> Some rambling kids web site forum. The BBC is a "rambling kids web site forum"?
> Stalin DID NOT offer the Ukraine to prevent a German attack. You should learn to read better; nobody said this was to prevent a German attack. It was simply an offer of territory Hitler had already captured.
It would be better if you didn't make up things, only to refute them.
Mike
LC - 27 Jun 2009 15:20 GMT > > Stalin offered the Germans a settle- > > ment which included the Ukraine. > > Cite please! Or are you making this up again? He isn't, he's referring to a 1941 Soviet offer for a second Brest- Litovsk. Things never got official because Hitler thought he could have everything at the time.
This is mentioned in Beevor's book on Stalingrad, and possibly in Alan Clark's "Barbarossa" as well though I can't be bothered to check this last source right now.
Regarding the 1943 German-Soviet peace talks, this was discussed before in this group:
http://groups.google.fr/group/soc.history.war.world-war-ii/msg/5b38263aeb1aaecd?hl=fr
LC
Bay Man - 28 Jun 2009 01:03 GMT >> > Stalin offered the Germans a settle- >> > ment which included the Ukraine. [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > Litovsk. Things never got official because Hitler thought he could > have everything at the time. Stalin offered nothing before June 1941.
mtfester@netMAPSONscape.net - 28 Jun 2009 05:21 GMT > >> > Stalin offered the Germans a settle- > >> > ment which included the Ukraine. [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > > Litovsk. Things never got official because Hitler thought he could > > have everything at the time.
> Stalin offered nothing before June 1941. Only you are claiming he did.
In any event, you seem to now be admitting that yes, indeed, Stalin DID offer Hitler terms, and thus he did not seem to believe Germany had no chance to win.
Mike
Bay Man - 29 Jun 2009 16:38 GMT >> >> > Stalin offered the Germans a settle- >> >> > ment which included the Ukraine. [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] > > Only you are claiming he did. Cite please.
mtfester@netMAPSONscape.net - 30 Jun 2009 05:31 GMT > >> >> > Stalin offered the Germans a settle- > >> >> > ment which included the Ukraine. [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] > > > > Only you are claiming he did.
> Cite please. It was your claim; no citation needed.
Mike
LC - 28 Jun 2009 11:53 GMT > Stalin offered nothing before June 1941. Nobody claimed he did, except you in the last couple of posts.
Prior to being attacked, he had no reason to offer anything as he wasn't asked for terms. Once Barbarossa was underway, he volunteered terms which the Germans rejected. This is well-known to anyone with a fair knowledge of WWII and is what Mike had been alluding to.
LC
Bay Man - 29 Jun 2009 05:06 GMT >> Stalin offered nothing before June 1941. > > Nobody claimed he did, except you in the last couple of posts. I did? New to me.
> Prior to being attacked, he had no reason to offer anything as he > wasn't asked for terms. Once Barbarossa was underway, he volunteered > terms which the Germans rejected. This is well-known to anyone with a > fair knowledge of WWII and is what Mike had been alluding to. He was? It was clear to me it was pre June 41.
mtfester@netMAPSONscape.net - 29 Jun 2009 16:43 GMT > >> Stalin offered nothing before June 1941. > > > > Nobody claimed he did, except you in the last couple of posts.
> I did? New to me. You should perhaps read your own posts.
> > Prior to being attacked, he had no reason to offer anything as he > > wasn't asked for terms. Once Barbarossa was underway, he volunteered > > terms which the Germans rejected. This is well-known to anyone with a > > fair knowledge of WWII and is what Mike had been alluding to.
> He was? It was clear to me it was pre June 41. Then please explain how 1) you are the only one so confused 2) the statement about Stalin offering up the Ukraine, etc, came in refuting your statement that the Germans were obviously going to lose the war.
If you would follow threads, instead of fabricate statements you wish to refute, these things wouldn't happen.
Mike
WaltBJ - 30 Jun 2009 05:30 GMT Oog. I just got in on this and read all 94 submissions and of course lost track of who said what. But two things I would like to mention: 1) England and the USA used a lot of women in industry. England conscripted them for the war effort. USA recruited them. Hitler avoided anything like the Allies' number of women. (Kuchen und Kinder?) 2) The USA went to 3-shift operation quickly. I don''t know about England. AFIK Hitler didn't do this until 1944. 3) USA rationalized war production, more or less. Hitler didn't - R&D and production was sort of shotgun until Speer stepped in. 4) Note that Hitler was still thinking of a short war in 1940; no long term plans for war production, R&D. In 1940 USAAF was thinking of transAtlantic bomber missions; vide XB35 and XB36. Walt BJ
Rich - 01 Jul 2009 03:16 GMT > Oog. I just got in on this and read all 94 submissions and of course > lost track of who said what. But two things I would like to mention: Welcome to Fantasyland Walt. ;) Or Nightmareland, depending on your POV. :)
> 1) England and the USA used a lot of women in industry. England > conscripted them for the war effort. USA recruited them. Hitler > avoided anything like the Allies' number of women. (Kuchen und > Kinder?) That has actually been pretty conclusively disproved since at least Mark Harrison's studies in the 1990s. German had one of the highest proportions of women employed of any of the combatants; only the Soviets came close. You can argue that they were emplyed in agriculture rather than industry, but in a 20th century total war I don't think that matters a hill of beans.
> 2) The USA went to 3-shift operation quickly. I don''t know about > England. AFIK Hitler didn't do this until 1944. Ditto, plus "Toose". :) German industry did not got to 24-7 operations immediately because Nazis are stoopid" they didn't because they didn't have the manpower in industry to sustain such. They did go to the maximum work shift they could sustain given the workforce they had. But it took dumping some 7-million plus slave laborers into the system to enable them to do so.
> 3) USA rationalized war production, more or less. Hitler didn't - R&D > and production was sort of shotgun until Speer stepped in. I'm not sure how "rational" some of the US war production was, but the Speer Legende seems to be unkillable. Read "Toose". :) Seriously, Speer was a political animal who ruthlessly reprioritized assets according to Hitler's whims...he knew which side his bread was buttered on. But when resources of material and manpower or limited, reprioritization simply meant robbing Peter to pay Paul and the ups and downs of production in different sectors reflected that.
> 4) Note that Hitler was still thinking of a short war in 1940; no long > term plans for war production, R&D. In 1940 USAAF was thinking of > transAtlantic bomber missions; vide XB35 and XB36. > Walt BJ Oh, they had huge plans, for the fleet expansion, strategic bombers, and such, but they simply didn't have the resources that would have allowed them to realize those before they aquired them through conquest. The coffers were nearly empty in the German treasury as of 1 september 1939, which drove a lot of what they could do. Again, read "Toose". ;)
Cheers!
Rich
Duwop - 01 Jul 2009 05:07 GMT > I'm not sure how "rational" some of the US war production was, I've often wondered which nation did the "best" with what they had when these discussions come up. It would _seem_ that the sheer size of US industry covered up more than a few sins. But at the same time, that the US did devote so much of it's industry to (almost) total war is no small thing.
How would knowledgable historians rate the major belligerents for, efficiency (within their own limits) and effectiveness?
For instance, it seems that Britain went on a complete war footing earlier than most and was able to get the most our of what they had. Not that what they had was the best, but they did make the most of it (within the framework of a democracy at any rate) . The Japanese *seemed* to be pretty good at this as well.
I'm far from knowledgeable, but I'll go ahead and get it started. Asbestos suit on. :)
Ranked 1-6
Country Efficiency Effectiveness
Japan 5, 5 Italy 6 , 6 Germany 3 , 2 USA 2 , 1 Britain 1 , 4 USSR 4 , 3
Maybe Italy shouldn't be considered?
mtfester@netMAPSONscape.net - 01 Jul 2009 05:42 GMT > (within the framework of a democracy at any rate) . The Japanese > *seemed* to be pretty good at this as well. Actually, the Japanese never did go to a full war-footing. And by the end of the war, students could still get draft deferments, able-bodied men could serve out their terms, etc.
> I'm far from knowledgeable, but I'll go ahead and get it started. > Asbestos suit on. :)
> Ranked 1-6
> Country Efficiency Effectiveness
> Japan 5, 5 > Italy 6 , 6 > Germany 3 , 2 > USA 2 , 1 > Britain 1 , 4 > USSR 4 , 3
> Maybe Italy shouldn't be considered? Not much of an "Axis" in Europe if they're not.
Mike
Duwop - 01 Jul 2009 16:14 GMT On Jun 30, 9:42 pm, mtfes...@netMAPSONscape.net wrote:
> > Maybe Italy shouldn't be considered? > > Not much of an "Axis" in Europe if they're not. > > Mike Wasn't the Axis more a slogan than a reality anyway?
A handy designator to be sure, but not much substance.
Joel Shepherd - 24 Jun 2009 03:29 GMT > >> The topic was Germany's ability to wage war. They could not, as their > >> economy was not good enough, [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > They couldn't. Their economy was less than their neighbours, with major > shortages of raw material, food , fuel, etc. All this has been explained. It's been "explained" in general and largely unsupported claims by yourself, and challenged and refuted by others with much more specific information. As a lurker on this group, guess which side I'm going to give more weight to.
If you don't believe Germany could "wage war", please be more specific about your claim. Do you mean they couldn't wage war successfully? You might have a case there, although until Germany came into direct conflict with the UK and USSR, it seemed to be successfully waging war on a smaller scale. And it certainly seemed to do so well enough in general as take some effort to stop.
> > This isn't quite correct, > > It is 100% correct. Again, speaking as a lurker, turning reasoned arguments into "Yes it is - No it's not" type exchanges doesn't work in your favor. You don't provide any _facts_ to indicate why (whatever it is) is 100% correct. So I see no reason to believe your assertion.
> > Since lots of us have read Tooze, and get certain conclusions that more > > or less agree with each other, and our conclusions disagree with yours, > > it seems likely that you are mistaken. Not certain, of course, but > > likely. > > A few of us concluded the same. "Yes it is - No it's not." If you find that's where your response is going to take the argument ... then just don't make one at all.
> > I would suggest that you provide page, or at least chapter, cites for > > some of your claims. It would be even better if they actually > > supported what you were saying. > > I am not going to spend hours trawling for your benefit. A Google on this > group will help you. It wouldn't be just for his benefit. It'd be for mine; it'd be for other lurkers and regulars; it'd be for future readers of this group. All those facts you claim can be found by Googling the group's archives: how do you think they got there? Because people _did_ take time to fetch and organize the concrete facts that supported their position, and then posted them. I've personally learned a great deal by reading such posts, as have, I suspect, many others.
> > Once more, I suggest you read more widely. > > I find that amazing. I don't. You rely on essentially one source to back your arguments. That's highly questionable to begin with, as it suggests you've made little or no effort to find confirmation of Tooze's statements elsewhere. Swallowing any source, hook, line and sinker, without collaborating evidence is risky: there are always errors.
You provide little concrete evidence -- hard numbers for example -- to back your claims; just pointing back to your one source which (so far as I can determine from the supported claims of other posters) you do have difficulty in interpreting per the author's intent.
Please start providing some concrete facts and evidence, and draw on another source or two. You'll benefit many other readers by doing so, and lend your arguments some credibility which -- speaking as someone who has no vested interested otherwise in the conversation -- they very badly need.
 Signature Joel.
Bay Man - 24 Jun 2009 15:08 GMT >> >> The topic was Germany's ability to wage war. They could not, as their >> >> economy was not good enough, [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] > It's been "explained" in general and largely unsupported claims by > yourself, I gave the references and have done on previous threads. Do a Google.
> If you don't believe Germany could "wage war", please be more specific > about your claim. Do you mean they couldn't wage war successfully? See my other post on this.
> It wouldn't be just for his benefit. It'd be for mine; Read Wages of Destruction by Adam Tooze for starters.
> Please start providing some concrete facts They have been given. Don't believe who makes the most noise.
Rich - 24 Jun 2009 05:20 GMT On Jun 22, 11:26 am, "Bay Man" <xyxbayman...@xyxmailinator.xyxcomnospam> wrote:
> Germany did have to supply the conquered countries with coal, feeds, etc. > These [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > not afford to give, as Germany was running out in 1941. Germany even had to > supply grain to Poland after conquest. The amazing thing is I think you actually believe this drivel.
> The topic was Germany's ability to wage war. They could not, as their > economy was not good enough, industry was slow in production (USSR out-made > them before and during WW2), and they did not have enough men. That is the > basics. Why yes, it was, and yes, they could, as is evident by the fact that they were capable of supporting their war effort at a very intense level, for just shy of six years. And they economy they had access to, courtesy of those 'meaningless' campaigns that gave them hegemony over Poland, France, Norway, and the Balkans, an alliance with Italy, Hungary, Romania, and Bulgaria, and easy access to imports from Sweden, Spain, Portugal, and Turkey, was rather substantial and less diffuse than that of the British Empire. For example, the Reich had axis (using 1937 production figures) to 23.2-miilion tons annually of coal, compared to 9.3-million tons for the USSR, 27-million tons of iron ore, compared to 14.3-million tons, 5-million tons of copper, compared to 4-million, 15-million tons of lead, compared to 3.3- million, 25-million tons of zinc, compared to 3.8-million, 55-million tons of bauxite, compared to 6.2-million, and so on. Where the Soviets had a significant advantage in raw materiel was in oil 11-million tons compared to 2.8-million, manganese, 41-million tons compared to 9,8- million, chrome, 15-million tons compared to 8.2-million, and phosphate, 25-million tons compared to 0.7-million.
Other material, such as tungsten, were comparable, with 6.6-million tons available to the Reich and 7-million to the USSR...except that Germany had easy access to the Spainish and Portuguese tungsten mines that expanded production enormously during the war.
In terms of foodstuffs the advantage was very much with the Germans. The 1937 comparison in millions of tons was:
Wheat - 27-million to 27-million...until Germany conquered the Ukraine, the Soviets breadbasket. Rice - 2-million to 2.4-million Maize - 18-million to 2.4-million Sugar - 46-million to 23-million Meat - 26-million to 15-million
Wartime production figures bear this out. In millions of tons the German versus Soviet production was:
Iron Ore 1940 13.4 to 29.9 1941 18.7 to 24.9 1942 18.2 to 9.8 1943 20.3 to 9.3 1944 11.0 to 11.6
Pig Iron 1940 15.5 to 14.9 1941 24.4 to 13.8 1942 24.9 to 4.8 1943 27.8 to 5.6 1944 20.9 to 7.3
Note the critical difference between raw material and the ability to turn it into a finished product. The same is apparent for:
Steel 1940 21.5 to 18.3 1941 32.1 to 17.9 1942 31.9 to 8.1 1943 34.5 to 8.5 1944 28.4 to 10.9
The Soviets did manage to outproduce the Germans in terms of tanks and assault guns, but even that is hardly a great accomplishment when the effort required by the Germans to produce the U-Boot fleet is counted in. Nor is the difference as huge as it is often made out to be. In terms of domestic production the numbers were (German/Soviet):
1941 3,903/6,484 (but the Soviets produced 2,331 light tanks versus 236 German) 1942 6,618/24,632 (Soviet light tanks 9,357 to 392 German) 1943 11,257/23,862 (Soviet light tanks 3,343 to 0 German) 1944 18,289/28,785
What is interesting of course is that German production continued to expand, while the Soviet essentially flatlined after 1942.
Artillery is another interesting comparison.
1941 11,413/20,644 1942 21,110/56,214 1943 37,790/54,087 1944 53,077/39,826
Note that again Soviet production shrank after the vast expansion of 1942...while the German expansion continued without interuption. More notable, the Soviet production was generally of lighter types, including large numbers of their excellent 76mm guns and howitzers. But in 1942 the Germans produced 1,342 pieces 150mm or larger and the Soviets 1,809. In 1943 the Soviets produced just 1,006 heavy pieces...and the Germans 2,505. By 1944 the Germans were producing five times as many heavy pieces, 4,950, to 960.
What is more, the Soviets were unable to make fully efficient use of their artillery since their ammunition production was greatly constrained compared to the German. Production of ammunition for artillery 20mm and larger (German/Soviet in millions of rounds) was:
1940 106.4/17.2 1941 104.7/42.2 1942 193.6/73.5 1943 217.7/85.8 1944 281.1/94.8
BTW, all these data are readily available at my good friend Jason Long's Panzerkeil website.
As usual the picture is much more complex than you seem able to imagine and certainly is more complex than 'Toose" seems aware of. On the other hand Adam TOOZE has a much better grasp of the subject than you. It might be nice if you could at least spell his name correctly; I've given up hope of you ever quoting him correctly.
Bay Man - 24 Jun 2009 15:08 GMT > The amazing thing is I think you actually believe this drivel. Yes I do believe Tooze. He doesn't write for Hollywood that is clear.
>> The topic was Germany's ability to wage war. They could not, as their >> economy was not good enough, industry was slow in production (USSR [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > they were capable of supporting their war effort at a very intense > level, for just shy of six years. Another wise in hindsight comment. I will clarify for you. "Wage war and win". They won nothing - nothing was conclusive. They lost. Why did they lose? At the time Germany was to wage war, they were in no condition to do so and sustain the war when assessing their neighbours. That is why they lost.
As I have repeatedly stated, Germany was short of everything. They had an antiquated agricultural system, that could not produce enough food to feed the nation. They were short of just about everything, men, raw materials, etc, except coal, while their neighbours had raw materials and oil, etc. Even coal and industrial production was cut back as manpower had to be drained from industry for the military, which had no surplus.
Combined GDP of the UK and France exceeded Germany & Italy by 60%. The UK and France also combined had a military far larger than Germany's. In 1939 contemplating waging war on those two was madness, because Germany did not have the ability to wage sustained war.
Tooze: "It was poor because of the incomplete industrial and economic development of Germany".
Tooze: "the strongest arguments for rushing to conquer the Soviet Union in 1941 were precisely the growing shortage of grain and the need to knock Britain out of the war before it could pose a serious air threat." That is, running out of resource, so desperate, as they foolishly waged war on the UK in 1939, and who were a big threat in the coming months from the air, with air power the Germans had no hope of matching in an air force that was now largely out of date (1941).
The 1933 German census gave 56.8% of the population in rural areas (towns less than 20,000 population) - Tooze, page 167.
Also, "If we add to that the number living in small market towns of between 2,000 and 20,000, the share comes to 56.8 per cent. And what these statistics cannot convey is the sheer backwardness of much of German rural life even as late as the 1930s."
Tooze emphasises how backward German agriculture was. Tooze describes Germany as a medium sized workshop economy dependent on imported food. Germany with was full of smallholdings, who had more in common with backward agricultural nations as Ireland, Bulgaria and Romania, as Tooze emphasises. They could not feed themselves, which is a prime point in waging war.
The Germans needed ores, fuel (coal and oil) and cereals. Oil has many other products extracted and is not just fuel to be burnt. They needed these raw materials to fight the UK and later the US. The Germans were under no illusions that eventually they would be facing the USA, which makes it all totally incredible, that a limited country could even consider taking on: France, UK, USSR and the USA. The Germans pretty well knew that if they were at war with the UK, eventually the USA would be involved. So, putting themselves in a position that puts France and the UK(USA) directly against them, was an act of suicide. In 1939, facing the UK and France alone was daunting task in itself, never mind the USA or the USSR. They were in a position they could just not win. They were total fools, with a country totally unequipped to wage such sustained war and win.
Then there is myths about German weapons being superior. Their air force had an edge at first, in some case inferior, however was largely outdated by 1941 to the new US & UK planes coming off the lines. Their tanks had the edge for while, mainly against the British in the desert. Some weapons were better, others not, many just about the same. In technological, mainly electronic, war. The British were supreme. Their surface navy was not worth mentioning as it was so small. U-Boat were no better than US & UK equivalents.
But it is easy to be wise in hindsight and mix up war periods. At the times they were to wage massive sustained war, 1939 and 1941, their armaments were overall no better and in some cases like tanks, inferior: French Char B and British Matilda 2 in 1939, Soviet T34 in 1941. In 1939, their air-forces was no better overall than the combined French and British, but they did have the edge over the USSR in 1941.
The important logistics: They were horse drawn at the rear and men marched, while in 1939 the British were 100% motorised (men never marched). In 1941, they never had enough rail lines to supply their front units - known before the attack on the USSR. Guns and supplies were dragged by horse too slowly with men marching with the horses. In 1939 & 1941 they were short of men attacking with no reserves.
It all points to that Germany was in no position to wage sustained war in 1939 or 1941. That is the reality. Germany taking reckless gambles, and them paying off is another matter, which many confuse and put as evidence that Germany had the capability to sustain and wage war. Read back on the thread, or Google. It is all there for you.
Rich - 25 Jun 2009 03:08 GMT On Jun 24, 10:08 am, "Bay Man" <xyxbayman...@xyxmailinator.xyxcomnospam> wrote:
> > The amazing thing is I think you actually believe this drivel. > > Yes I do believe Tooze. He doesn't write for Hollywood that is clear. The drivel I was commenting on was not Tooze.
> Another wise in hindsight comment. I will clarify for you. "Wage war and > win". They won nothing - nothing was conclusive. They lost. Why did they > lose? At the time Germany was to wage war, they were in no condition to do > so and sustain the war when assessing their neighbours. That is why they > lost. Wise in hindsight? You are the one commenting on German decision making based upon hindsight.
The volte face is rather disingenous, not to say dishonest, after you have spent a number of posts insisting that what you meant was "wage war". So this questioning whether you meant "win war" were in fact correct the whole time?
The fact that the Germans did go to war and were able to sustain that war, against what ultimately became great odds, rather indicates that they were in condition to wage war.
> As I have repeatedly stated, Germany was short of everything. They had an > antiquated agricultural system, that could not produce enough food to feed > the nation. They were short of just about everything, men, raw materials, > etc, except coal, while their neighbours had raw materials and oil, etc. > Even coal and industrial production was cut back as manpower had to be > drained from industry for the military, which had no surplus. Um, you "repeatedly state" quite a bit. But that doesn't mean that it is correct. Tooze correctly notes the inefficiency of the agricultural system, but it and the rape of Europe was sufficient to feed the needs of the Germans; they had learned that lesson from the Great War. The real problem for them was that the inefficiency of the agricultural system meant that it was a drain on labor, which ***was*** always in short supply. The solution was to starve prisoners and slave laborers, work them to death, replace them with new "stock" from the captured territories and thus ensure that sufficient food remained for the German population.
That labor shortage also applied to industry and military manpower of course, but I fail to see where it resulted in cutbacks in coal or essential industrial production...at least in those production figures I gave. Perhaps you could point them out so we could all see them?
> Combined GDP of the UK and France exceeded Germany & Italy by 60%. The UK > and France also combined had a military far larger than Germany's. In 1939 > contemplating waging war on those two was madness, because Germany did not > have the ability to wage sustained war. Why yes, adjusted to 1990 dollars the GDP of "Germany" was only 374,577-million in 1939 and that of the UK (excluding the Empire) was 300,539-million and France 374,577-million, so "exceeded by 80%" in fact would be more correct. The problem of course was that was the situation in 1939, and ignored the shifting power balances. For example the "German" figure fails to include Austria or the German allies...including its staunch ally the Soviets. Looked at in that light the balance was Reich $582,481-million versus UK and France $675,118-million, with the Soviet Union $430,314-million in the German camp as a favored trading partner.
It also ignores the gains to Germany by the seizure of Poland and the conquest of Norway, the Low Countries, France, the Balkans, and Greece. By 1941 the balance was considerably different. At that point Germany had direct or effective control of $704,205-million, was allied to another $205,951-million, and had access to continental trade with neutrals worth another $151,681-million. In contrast, the Soviet Union's economy was $333,656-million and was quite simply dwarfed by itself when compared to the German. The GDP of the British Empire totaled about $775,784-million, but that includes India's $270,531-million as well as Malaysia (6,878-million) and Sri Lanka ($7,875-million), whose GDP was grossly domestic. Nevermind of course that the overseas Imperial GDP was just that, overseas.
> Tooze: "the strongest arguments for rushing to conquer the Soviet Union in > 1941 > were precisely the growing shortage of grain and the need to knock Britain > out of the war before it could pose a serious air threat." Nevermind that Tooze correctly notes that was the "strongest argument" rather than the "reason". That may be found on page 430 where he notes that "the conquest of the Soviet Union, even though it was an immense undertaking and even though it satisfied deep imperatives of Nazi ideology, could not be viewed in isolation". The "strongest argument" cannot be "viewed in isolation" either.
> The 1933 German census gave 56.8% of the population in rural areas (towns > less than 20,000 population) - Tooze, page 167. Glad to see you finally got that one right.
(snip bafflegab arguing points not in question)
> Then there is myths about German weapons being superior. And who has been propounding that "myth" here" How is it relevent to this argument?
(snip massive non sequiter regarding points not in question)
> But it is easy to be wise in hindsight and mix up war periods. At the times > they were to wage massive sustained war, 1939 and 1941, their armaments were > overall no better and in some cases like tanks, inferior: French Char B and > British Matilda 2 in 1939, Soviet T34 in 1941. In 1939, their air-forces > was no better overall than the combined French and British, but they did > have the edge over the USSR in 1941. And that would explain why they were unable to defeat the French in May and June 1940, why they were unable to drive British ground forces from the continent in the same period, why the British forces in the Western Desert were triumphant in BREVITY and BATTLEAXE and why the Matilda and its decendents became the main battle tank of the British forces for the rest of the war? That would also explain why the Soviets lost over 20,000 tanks in 1941?
Thanks for also explaining how the Luftwaffe was so easily defeated by the French and British air forces in 1940. I missed that somehow.
> The important logistics: They were horse drawn at the rear and men marched, > while in 1939 the British were 100% motorised (men never marched). In 1941, > they never had enough rail lines to supply their front units - known before > the attack on the USSR. Guns and supplies were dragged by horse too slowly > with men marching with the horses. In 1939 & 1941 they were short of men > attacking with no reserves. You might want to look for some vets down at the local pub and asked them if they "never marched" into battle. The primary difference between the 1939-1941 German infantry division and a British infantry division was in terms of how supplies were delivered and heavy within the regiment/brigade and how battalion heavy weapons were transported...in both cases (and in the Soviet, American, French, and every other army) the infantryman walked into battle, marched on his feet for the most part operationally, and only had the luxury of motor or rail transport to ease his dogs in limited operational and strategic movements. The majority of long-distance logistical movements were done by rail and motor transport.
The drivel about "no reserves" is just that and not worth being addressed further.
> It all points to that Germany was in no position to wage sustained war in > 1939 or 1941. That is the reality. Germany taking reckless gambles, and > them paying off is another matter, which many confuse and put as evidence > that Germany had the capability to sustain and wage war. Read back on the > thread, or Google. It is all there for you. The confusion appears to be your inability to distinguish meanings between these odd things called "words". That Germany did wage war for six years indicates that they did have that ability to "sustain" it. Your confusion appears to be between the meaning of "wage" and "win". What is more, through a combination of pragmatic diplomacy, capitalizing on strengths, and taking advantage of operational innovation (and some luck), they were able to place themselves in a position of considerably greater strength in 1941 than they had in 1939. In effect they created a "superpower" only exceeded individually by the sum of the British Empire or the United States by itself. The next logical step was to either attempt to knock off the next strong power, the UK, or go after a weaker victim, the Soviet Union, so as to develop enough strength to counterbalance the Empire's strength. In theory that would have left them stronger than the Empire and on par with the United States.
In that sense the German strategy was logical, but it was also of course madness in the sense that they were simply hanging on for dear life to the tigers tail. But the madness is very much evident in hindsight; given the economic corner the Nazi's had painted themselves into the alternatives were the madness of acting like a plague of locusts in Europe or the madness of doing nothing and watch the nation and government collapse. In that sense madness was inevitable.
Bay Man - 25 Jun 2009 16:35 GMT > The fact that the Germans did go to war and were able to sustain that > war, against what ultimately became great odds, rather indicates that > they were in condition to wage war. They were not in a condition to wage war, economically, industrially, militarily. They attempted wild reckless gambles, which paid off, beyond their widest dreams. especially attacking France. They were not in a position to wage sustained war in 1939/40 or 1941.
Tooze: Page 454: "Critical stores would be reserved above all for the main strike force of 33 tank and motorised infantry divisions. If the battle extended much beyond the first months of the attack, the fighting power of the rest of the German army would dwindle rapidly."
"Fundamentally the Wehrmacht was a "poor army". The fast striking motorised element of the Germans army in 1941 consisted of only 33 divisions of 130. Three-quarters of the German army continued to rely on more traditional means of traction: foot and horse. The German army in 1941 invaded the Soviet Union with somewhere between 600,000 and 740,000 horses. The horses were not for riding. They were for moving guns, ammunition and supplies."
"But to imagine a fully motorised Wehrmacht, poised for an attack on the Soviet Union is a fantasy of the Cold War, not a realistic vision of the possibilities of 1941. To be more specific, it is an American fantasy. The Anglo-American invasion force of 1944 was the only military force in WW2 to fully conform to the modern model of a motorised army."
> Um, you "repeatedly state" quite a bit. And you repeatedly do not take it in resorting to, in your words, "drivel".
> The solution was to starve prisoners and slave labourers, > work them to death, replace them with new "stock" from the captured > territories and thus ensure that sufficient food remained for the > German population. Yep. The Germans had 7 million slave labour people in Germany that needed feeding, hence large imports of food.
> That labor shortage also applied to industry and military manpower of > course, but I fail to see where it resulted in cutbacks in coal or > essential industrial production...at least in those production figures > I gave. Perhaps you could point them out so we could all see them? Tooze: pages 496-499 I am not quoting word for word, may be better to read from the beginning of the chapter, page 486. During Barbarossa, German coal production was down 15% with no stocks, and was to reach 25%. Ore (steel) was down heavily. They could not replace lost equipment at adequate levels.
By August 1941, Hitler knew that the USSR could not defeated before winter. The T-34 was making a large impact on the German army. Ammunition had been deliberately run down in 1940-41 and was at dangerously low levels. To compound this...
page 498 "If the Wehrmacht was to continue active operations in 1942, it desperately needed to replenish its stocks. Not only that, given the startling superiority of much of the Red Army's weaponry, the Wehrmacht needed an entire new generation of tanks and infantry weapons."
page 539: Grain was near exhausted by the end of 1941. Despite imported grain from the conquered countries.
>> Combined GDP of the UK and France exceeded >> Germany & Italy by 60%. The UK and France also [quoted text clipped - 10 lines] > example the "German" figure fails to include Austria or the German > allies. Again..it stated...Combined GDP of the UK and France exceeded Germany & Italy by 60%. Note Italy as well and as Austria was already a part of Germany that would be included.
> ..including its staunch ally the Soviets. The Soviets not an ally that would be aligned in war. It was a pact that Hitler did not want. he wanted Germany, France and the UK to align against the USSR pre 1939.
> It also ignores the gains to Germany > by the seizure of Poland and the > conquest of Norway, the Low Countries, > France, the Balkans, and Greece. > By 1941 the balance was considerably different. The conquered countries gave little to Germany of any real significance, apart from inefficient slave labour.
page 438. The arms production workforce from 1939-41, was army increased 100% but only 70% in production. Air force 50% increase and only a 15% gain.
> At that point Germany had direct or effective > control of $704,205-million, was allied to another [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > $333,656-million and was quite simply > dwarfed by itself when compared to the German. You are saying the German economy was larger than the USSR.
Tooze page 455 - "According to the best modern estimates, German per capita GDP was two and a half times that of the Soviet Union in 1940."
Since the USSR had approximately 2.5 times the German population, the two countries had pretty much the same GDP.
c/o John Anderton: http://www.onwar.com/articles/f0302.htm
> UK paperback p456 - "In 1939 the German steel association put the > Soviet Union well ahead of Great Britain, in third place behind the > United States and Germany, with an annual output of 18 million tons of > steel compared to Germany's 23.3 million tons." Interesting. http://www2.warwick.ac.uk/fac/soc/economics/research/workingpapers/publications/ twerp603.pdf
Snippets:
"Soviet exceeded German GDP in 1940"
"The Allies won the war because their economies supported a greater volume of war production and military personnel in larger numbers. This was true of the war as a whole, and it was also true on the eastern front where the Soviet economy, of a similar size to Germany's but less developed and also seriously weakened by invasion, supplied more soldiers and weapons."
"the technological key to Soviet superiority in the output of weapons was mass production. At the outbreak of war Soviet industry as a whole was not larger and not more productive than German industry. The non-industrial resources on which Soviet industry could draw were larger than Germany's in the sense of territory and population, but of considerably lower quality, more far-flung, and less well integrated. Both countries had given considerable thought to industrial mobilisation preparations, but the results were of questionable efficacy. In both countries war production was poorly organised at first and productivity in the military-industrial sector had been falling for several years. The most important difference was that Soviet industry had made real strides towards mass production, while German industry was still locked into an artisan mode of production that placed a premium on quality and assortment rather than quantity. Soviet industry produced fewer models of each type of weapon, and subjected them to less modification, but produced them in far larger quantities. Thus the Soviet Union was able to make considerably more effective use of its limited industrial resources than Germany."
"Before the war Soviet defence industry was in a state of permanent technological reorganisation as new models of aircraft, tanks, and other weapons were introduced and old ones phased out at dizzying rate."
The USSR had access to oil, far more natural resources and far more men. Making their ability to produce far greater than Germany, which actually happened.
Nothing I have read from a number of sources states what you do, the Germany economy was vastly larger than the USSR.
>> Tooze: "the strongest arguments for rushing to >> conquer the Soviet Union in 1941 were precisely [quoted text clipped - 8 lines] > ideology, could not be viewed in isolation". The "strongest argument" > cannot be "viewed in isolation" either. You are unbelievable. The complete quote is: "the conquest of the Soviet Union, even though it was an immense undertaking and even though it satisfied deep imperatives of Nazi ideology, could not be viewed in isolation. It was a means to the end of consolidating Germany's position for the ultimate confrontation with the Western powers".
Tooze is not viewing the strongest argument in isolation at all. It is clear all are interrelated. On the same page he also states: "the Third Reich calibrated its attack on the USSR so that as many resources as possible could be freed at the earliest possible opportunity for the ongoing struggle with Britain and its backers the USA".
page 431: "Meanwhile, the rest of the German military-industrialised complex began to gird itself for the aerial confrontation with Britain and America."
Got it?
>> Then there is myths about German weapons being superior. > > And who has been propounding that "myth" > here" How is it relevent to this argument? The ability to wage sustained war - very relevant.
>> But it is easy to be wise in hindsight and >> mix up war periods. At the times [quoted text clipped - 10 lines] > why they were unable to drive British ground forces > from the continent Oh no. Not this wise in hindsight drivel again. Read back on some of my post, I am not going paste it all again for you. It is amazing how few on this forum can actually put themselves at a time point and view matters from that point. In 1939-40 and 1941, Germany was foolish to wage war and nothing was in their favour.
> Thanks for also explaining how the > Luftwaffe was so easily defeated by > the French and British air forces in 1940. It was by the British in the BofB.
> I missed that somehow. You did. But still wise in hindsight again by you.
> in both cases (and in the Soviet, American, French, and > every other army) the infantryman walked into battle, Again.."in 1939 the British were 100% motorised (men never marched)". Well in theory anyhow.
> The drivel about "no reserves" is just that > and not worth being addressed further. It is. Again..drivel as you say... Germany was committed 100% to Barbarossa. There was no reserves. Tooze, Page 452: "the Germans had already conscripted virtually all their prime manpower. By contrast, the Red Army could call up millions of reservists."
> The confusion appears to be your > inability to distinguish meanings > between these odd things called "words". You have not one put anything up that counters what I have. You have a complete inability to put yourself at a point of time and view any matter how they would have at that point, constantly making half-baked, and in your words "drivel" judgements.
> That Germany did wage war for > six years indicates that they did > have that ability to "sustain" it. Read back on my posts. And forget this wise in hindsight nonsense that keeps bouncing around your head and clouding all your views. It is easier that way.
...and stop the insults...
Rich - 26 Jun 2009 15:19 GMT On Jun 25, 11:35 am, "Bay Man" <xyxbayman...@xyxmailinator.xyxcomnospam> wrote:
I suppose I might as well reply to the rest of this nonsense...
> > And that would explain why they were unable > > to defeat the French in May and June 1940, [quoted text clipped - 6 lines] > that point. In 1939-40 and 1941, Germany was foolish to wage war and > nothing was in their favour. "Wise in hindsight"? I was asking a QUESTION. Since you have NEVER answered them I doubt there is much point and going back and reading your posts. Curiously enough of course my reaction is the same as yours...you seem to be the ***only*** one on this forum regularly posting who cannot view things from a particular point in time. "In 1939-40 and 1941, Germany was foolish to wage war and nothing was in their favour" is a statement steeped in hindsight..
> > Thanks for also explaining how the > > Luftwaffe was so easily defeated by > > the French and British air forces in 1940. > > It was by the British in the BofB. Dodging questions yet again. The Luftwaffe was stalemated in the Battle of Britain, for much the same reasons the RAF was stalemated by the Luftwaffe in its attempts at cross-Channel operations 1941-1943. Stalemate is not quite the same as "win" or "lose"...its another one of those tough word thingies. As such it became part of the overall strategic and operational failure that characterized the German war effort.
However, that was not so apparent ***at the time*** as you seem to think it must have been, which is the only way that your accusations of "hindsight" leveled at so many posters and historians can be considered remotely legitimate.
> > in both cases (and in the Soviet, American, French, and > > every other army) the infantryman walked into battle, > > Again.."in 1939 the British were 100% motorised (men never marched)". Well > in theory anyhow. Again, repetition serving as evidence. Of course now it is qualified; evidently what you really meant was that was only theoretical.
> > The drivel about "no reserves" is just that > > and not worth being addressed further. [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > "the Germans had already conscripted virtually all their prime manpower. By > contrast, the Red Army could call up millions of reservists." So the over 9-million Germans conscripted after that time didn't really exist? Or do only Soviet "millions" get to be counted? Or do only Soviet "prime" manpower get counted? Does "prime" manpower include the half-starved wretches of the gulags impressed en masse in summer and fall 1941? Or the Ukrainians, Latvians, Estonians, Lithuanians, and Byelorussians impressed in 1944 and 1945? Does the estimated 200,000 Soviet women who served in combat count as "prime" military manpower? (BTW, the answer to that last is actually "yes", but that can only be so claimed in hindsight, at the time women's service was very much considered as "secondary".)
Please try to address the questions by some methodology that involves unclutching the hindbrain and engaging the frontal cortext; spamming bits of hyperbole from Tooze, who did not write a comparative military manpower study, doesn't count.
> You have not one put anything up that counters what I have. You have a > complete inability to put yourself at a point of time and view any matter > how they would have at that point, constantly making half-baked, and in your > words "drivel" judgements. Really? So just how does your spate of posts address the original question posed in this topic? Or any of the subsequent questions posed you then? Proclaiming that the Germans were "madmen" to fight a war they couldn't "wage" rather misses the point I think?
> Read back on my posts. And forget this wise in hindsight nonsense that > keeps bouncing around your head and clouding all your views. It is easier > that way. I do read your posts and ask you questions. You reply with observations that consist of non sequiters, evasions, spams of material from Tooze, and misconceptions based upon hindsight.
> ...and stop the insults... Where exactly have I insulted you? Is it the spew of "read my posts", "wise in hindsight posts", accusations of mythmaking? Ooops, sorry, those are ***your*** posts. Drivel is a synonym for nonsense and can only be an insult if what you were posting wasn't nonsense. Since you have failed to answer the questions that might establish that what you posted was not nonsense then it remains nonsense. Either way, it isn't an insult. Asking you to think a little and engage in an actual debate, pro and con, is not an insult either, but your continual refusal to so engage any of the posters on this site on this or any other topic, is an insult.
Rich - 26 Jun 2009 15:23 GMT On Jun 25, 11:35 am, "Bay Man" <xyxbayman...@xyxmailinator.xyxcomnospam> wrote:
(snip the endless, mindless repetition of passages from "Toose" that passes for argument)
> > Um, you "repeatedly state" quite a bit. > > And you repeatedly do not take it in resorting to, in your words, "drivel". Actually I do take it in, in the faint hope that something new will eruct from you.
> Yep. The Germans had 7 million slave labour people in Germany that needed > feeding, hence large imports of food. Yep, but a good trade as far as they were concerned, since two or three slaves could be fed the same diet as a German, while the German armed forces could be quartered on conquered territories where they could employ Wallenstein's methodology for waging war.
> Tooze: pages 496-499 > I am not quoting word for word, may be better to read from the beginning of > the chapter, page 486. During Barbarossa, German coal production was down > 15% with no stocks, and was to reach 25%. Ore (steel) was down heavily. They > could not replace lost equipment at adequate levels. Why yes, indeed, manpower demands restricted expansion and caused stagnation in 1941 and 1942 before growth continued in 1943 (partly courtesy of the 7-million odd slave laborers dumped into the system). If you bothered to look at and argue the figures I gave you would have noticed they reflect that. OTOH, what does that have to do with the fact that German production of those items was multiples of the Soviet? (snip more mindless repetition)
> Again..it stated...Combined GDP of the UK and France exceeded Germany & > Italy by 60%. Note Italy as well and as Austria was already a part of > Germany that would be included. And here I thought you'd take the "80%" and run with it. And, no, Austrian GDP data is available seperately from the Reich in 1939.
> The Soviets not an ally that would be aligned in war. It was a pact that > Hitler did not want. he wanted Germany, France and the UK to align against > the USSR pre 1939. Sure, only an ally who supplied everything the Germans required for 20 months at extremely favorable terms. And, in case you missed it, Hitler didn't get that alliance in 1939, so he went with what he could get.
> The conquered countries gave little to Germany of any real significance, > apart from inefficient slave labour. Really? French iron ore, coal, and pig iron and finished steel weren't significant? The French auto industry, entirely expropriated by the Wehrmacht, wasn't significant? Ditto the aviation industry, producing spare parts and providing extensive maintenance and repair facilities for the Luftwaffe, was useless?
> page 438. The arms production workforce from 1939-41, was army increased > 100% but only 70% in production. Air force 50% increase and only a 15% gain. I defy anyone to make sense of that. Especially since what is said is that "the Wehrmacht workforce doubled [between 1939 and 1941], armaments production increased by only 70 percent". In terms of numbers the workforce changes (Wehrmacht/War Industry personnel) were:
1939 - 4,690,000/38,725,000 1941 - 8,254,000/35,100,000
So yes, those in uniform (Wehrmacht workforce) increased, but the war industry workforce decreased. That pesky manpower thing again. Of course you could ask how they managed a 70% production increase...but I wouldn't want you to strain yourself.
> You are saying the German economy was larger than the USSR. Give the man a cigar.
> Tooze page 455 - "According to the best modern estimates, German per capita > GDP was two and a half times that of the Soviet Union in 1940." > > Since the USSR had approximately 2.5 times the German population, the two > countries had pretty much the same GDP. The "best historical estimates" place the Soviet population/GDP in 1940 as 195,970,000/$420,091,000 (it was shrinking after peaking in 1939) or therabouts. The Reich about 76,540,000/$403,831,000. So per capita of $2,144 for the Soviets to $5,276 for the Germans...call it 2.46-to-1.
Nevermind of course that I was looking at 1941, when the Soviet GDP was $333,656,000 versus the Reich's $429,620,000...plus everything they could loot from their conquests.
> > UK paperback p456 - "In 1939 the German steel association put the > > Soviet Union well ahead of Great Britain, in third place behind the > > United States and Germany, with an annual output of 18 million tons of > > steel compared to Germany's 23.3 million tons." And the German steel association certainly knew better than the Soviets what their production was, right?
> "Soviet exceeded German GDP in 1940" It'd be interesting if it was in dispute. The figures I gave were 1939 and 1941...but the 1940 figures for Germany do not account for the loot ftom Norway, Denmark, the Netherlands, Belgium, France, and Luxembourg either.
(snip more simply not in dispute)
> The USSR had access to oil, far more natural resources and far more men. > Making their ability to produce far greater than Germany, which actually > happened. Aside from the oil the only thing they had "far more access to" was manganese, chrome, and phosphates. Germany had access to more than twice the coal, almost twice the iron ore, almost five times the lead, six times the zinc, eight times the bauxite, and five times the pyrites.
What was most important was there greater manpower that could be more easily directed, their lack of requirement for certain labor and resource intensive items (such as a submarine and surface fleet comparable to the German), and that they could focus all their resources on one enemy, while being able to rely on allies eventually supply items in shortfall...such as Spam.
> Nothing I have read from a number of sources states what you do, the Germany > economy was vastly larger than the USSR. Tsk, tsk, it's rude putting words in another's mouth, I like it probably as much as Tooze probably does. "Dwarfed" and "vast" are two different words. The Reich, its allies, and its conquered territories generated at total of over $911,000,000 compared to the Soviets $333,656,000 in 1941 and the Reich itself exceeded that. I think "dwarfed" is pretty reasonable considering it was nearly three-to-one.
> You are unbelievable. The complete quote is: > "the conquest of the Soviet Union, even though it was an immense undertaking > and even though it satisfied deep imperatives of Nazi ideology, could not be > viewed in isolation. It was a means to the end of consolidating Germany's > position for the ultimate confrontation with the Western powers". You think the second sentence substantially changes the meaning that Tooze is imparting?
> Tooze is not viewing the strongest argument in isolation at all. It is clear > all are interrelated. On the same page he also states: > "the Third Reich calibrated its attack on the USSR so that as many resources > as possible could be freed at the earliest possible opportunity for the > ongoing struggle with Britain and its backers the USA". Oh dear, you just don't do well at reading comprehension do you? Tooze is adding to the previous body of thought to create a new synthesis...he is not rejecting the previous interpretation as you appear to think. It is ***YOU*** that I was remarking was viewing Tooze's well-nuanced argument in isolation...not Tooze.
(snip bafflegab)
> >> Then there is myths about German weapons being superior. > > > And who has been propounding that "myth" > > here" How is it relevent to this argument? > > The ability to wage sustained war - very relevant. Do you mind actually answering the question asked...at least once please? WHO HAS BEEN PROPOUNDING THAT MYTH HERE? And, no, that is not relevent, weapons do not wage war, they are a tool to wage war with.
pbromaghin - 24 Jun 2009 21:13 GMT > He does. His clear proof that the rise of the USA prompted Germany into WW2 > ruffled many. The US had risen by the time Hitler was born.
> The reason why Germany attacked the USSR was that they needed > the natural resources, inc grain & oil, in preparation of the air war with [quoted text clipped - 3 lines] > production came on line in mid-to end 1942. The UK was Hitler's prime > pre-occupation. So your argument goes something like this:
The rise of the US in the 19th century caused Hitler to publish a book in 1925 saying he would attack the Soviet Union because he would need the resources when the US entered the war because he declared war on the US 2 years after he attacked the Soviet Union and he would need to fight the airplanes the US decided to build after he declared war because the US rose in the 19th century?
>Many post war historians were of concluding Germany should not have lost the war. This is very intersting. I have been reading WWII history for over 40 years and have never encountered any of these historians. Who are they?
Bay Man - 25 Jun 2009 04:47 GMT >> He does. His clear proof that the rise >> of the USA prompted Germany into WW2 >> ruffled many. > > The US had risen by the time Hitler was born. That is so.
>> The reason why Germany attacked the USSR was that they needed >> the natural resources, inc grain & oil, in preparation of the air war [quoted text clipped - 7 lines] > > So your argument goes something like this: No it doesn't. It goes like it is above. And historians claim that as well.
mtfester@netMAPSONscape.net - 25 Jun 2009 05:09 GMT > >> He does. His clear proof that the rise > >> of the USA prompted Germany into WW2 > >> ruffled many. > > > > The US had risen by the time Hitler was born.
> That is so. So, the rise of the US did NOT prompt Germany into WWII, correct?
> >> The reason why Germany attacked the USSR was that they needed > >> the natural resources, inc grain & oil, in preparation of the air war > >> with > >> the UK This is incorrect; Germany was already in an air war with the UK by that time, so the invasion was not in preparation of the air war.
> >> - in which the USA was build 50,000 planes per year and many will Didn't happen when Germany attacked the USSR.
> >> be > >> in the hands of the UK, besides its own production. Germany could never > >> match that level of air power and the aim was to fight the UK before USA > >> production came on line in mid-to end 1942. The UK was Hitler's prime > >> pre-occupation. Not according to "Mein Kampf".
> > So your argument goes something like this:
> No it doesn't. It goes like it is above. And historians claim that as > well. Again, please name those historians.
I suspect that, as usual, you cannot.
That is because the don't exist.
Mike
Bay Man - 26 Jun 2009 15:28 GMT > Again, please name those historians. > > I suspect that, as usual, you cannot. Tooze: page 429.
Rich - 26 Jun 2009 16:48 GMT On Jun 26, 10:28 am, "Bay Man" <xyxbayman...@xyxmailinator.xyxcomnospam> wrote:
> Tooze: page 429. I see. So now "many historians" has become five suspects:
Albert Speer: Nazi minister and postwar self-apologist J.K. Galbraith: economist, repeating Speer's apologia since it fit in with his economic views Hans Kehrl: postwar Nazi apologist and Speer's chief of staff Richard Overy: military historian, relying on Speer et al DRZW: which spoke of Germany "squandering its armaments advantage"
Of whom the first four are all more or less Speer (to those could be added many of the analysts of the USAAF SBS and the RAF BAU). And the "Speer Legende" has been in question for years before Tooze; in English by Mark Harrison beginning in 1988 and in German even earlier (the Speer "Economic Legende" deflation by German economic historians began as early as 1956 by R. Erbe and then G. Gehrig in 1961, and continued after that). Otherwise, it can easily be acknowledged that the Germans did squander their armaments advantage, but that is not the same as arguing that they could have won the war.
mtfester@netMAPSONscape.net - 26 Jun 2009 18:19 GMT > > Again, please name those historians. > > > > I suspect that, as usual, you cannot.
> Tooze: page 429. Sorry, when did Speer become an historian? Galbraith? Kehrl?
Again, please NAME the HISTORIANS who claimed Germany SHOULD HAVE won WWII.
I cannot make the request any simpler. YOU have claimed that "many historians" state Germany "should have won" the war. You have provided not a single name.
Please focus.
Mike
Bay Man - 27 Jun 2009 14:52 GMT > Again, please NAME the HISTORIANS who claimed This is from the man who said Stalin offered the Ukraine to Germany. Please just read. If you don't get something ask nicely.
mtfester@netMAPSONscape.net - 27 Jun 2009 15:37 GMT > > Again, please NAME the HISTORIANS who claimed
> This is from the man who said Stalin offered the Ukraine to Germany. Take it up with the BBC.
> Please just read. I did; Speer isn't an historian, neither is Galbraith. Do you know what an "historian" actually is?
> If you don't get something ask nicely. That's what the word "please" is for.
So, please name the HISTORIANS who claimed Germany SHOULD have won the war.
Mike
Bay Man - 28 Jun 2009 01:06 GMT >> > Again, please NAME the HISTORIANS who claimed > [quoted text clipped - 13 lines] > So, please name the HISTORIANS who claimed Germany SHOULD have won the > war. Stop digging yourself into a hole.
Rich - 28 Jun 2009 05:22 GMT On Jun 27, 8:06 pm, "Bay Man" <xyxbayman...@xyxmailinator.xyxcomnospam> wrote:
> > So, please name the HISTORIANS who claimed Germany SHOULD have won the > > war. > > Stop digging yourself into a hole. That would be good advice for you to follow yourself since you have yet to answer the question.
Who are the ***many*** historians you claimed had written that Germany should have won the war? So far the only historians you have named are Overy and the collective authors of DRZW, neither of whom claimed any such thing, since both merely said that German could have better utilized the resources they had. That is not the same thing as saying that they could have or should have won the war.
So who are these ever more mysterious historians that apparently only you have knowledge of?
mtfester@netMAPSONscape.net - 28 Jun 2009 05:28 GMT > >> > Again, please NAME the HISTORIANS who claimed
> > I did; Speer isn't an historian, neither is Galbraith. Do you know what > > an "historian" actually is? I am keeping this in here; you seem to have missed them.
> > So, please name the HISTORIANS who claimed Germany SHOULD have won the > > war.
> Stop digging yourself into a hole. I have asked you for the names of historians who said Germany should have won the war. You have given us none (the above aren't historians.)
So, shall we simply conclude there were none?
Mike
mtfester@netMAPSONscape.net - 25 Jun 2009 00:46 GMT > Many post war historians were of concluding Germany should not have lost the > war. Please cite some of these "Many".
Mike
Bay Man - 25 Jun 2009 03:09 GMT >> Many post war historians were of concluding >> Germany should not have lost the >> war. > > Please cite some of these "Many". Tooze and/or Keegan mention one or two. Have a look.
Rich - 25 Jun 2009 04:46 GMT On Jun 24, 10:09 pm, "Bay Man" <xyxbayman...@xyxmailinator.xyxcomnospam> wrote:
> <mtfes...@netMAPSONscape.net> wrote in message > > Please cite some of these "Many". > > Tooze and/or Keegan mention one or two. Have a look. Since you are so certain it should be easy for you to recall one or two. I have looked in Tooze and like the rest of the drivel attributed to him I have failed to find any evidence of either one or two. I am not going to waste my time looking for something that doesn't exist in Keegan either. Since he is one of the more doctrinaire authors and something of a political animal I would be surprised to see such a thing there in any case.
BTW, since when has one or two (or even two or four) equaled "many"? "Many" is a quantity that should easily enable you, with your vast knowledge of the historiography of World War II, to be able to name at least one of these mythical characters.
mtfester@netMAPSONscape.net - 25 Jun 2009 04:52 GMT > >> Many post war historians were of concluding > >> Germany should not have lost the > >> war. > > > > Please cite some of these "Many".
> Tooze and/or Keegan mention one or two. So, you cannot name "Many". Not unexpected.
Can you name even one historian claiming Germany should not have lost the war?
Thank you.
Mike
kenney@cix.compulink.co.uk - 21 Jun 2009 16:07 GMT > The > economies of the British and French empires Interestingly the non settler colonies were a net loss. The UK never made a profit out of Africa and India never did better than breaking even. By 1939 the Dominions were not paying anything to the UK. German production in 1939 was close to matching if not bigger than the combined production of the UK and France.
> In this situation it is also madness to even consider attacking the > USSR, with its massive military, large economy, large industry and > vast land mass. German intelligence was hopeless. It badly underestimated both UK and Soviet forces and production capacity. Ken Young
Bay Man - 22 Jun 2009 04:24 GMT >> The >> economies of the British and French empires [quoted text clipped - 4 lines] > production in 1939 was close to matching if not bigger than the combined > production of the UK and France. Nice to know, but still the British & French empires dwarfed Germany.
>> In this situation it is also madness to even consider attacking the >> USSR, with its massive military, large economy, large industry and >> vast land mass. > > German intelligence was hopeless. It badly underestimated both UK and > Soviet forces and production capacity. Yes, they were dumb at times.
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